UPSC Essentials: Daily Subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 1)
Are you Prelims ready? The countdown for UPSC CSE 2023 has begun. Check your progress and revise your topics through following quiz on Indian polity and governance.

Written by Nitendra Singh
UPSC Essentials brings to you its new initiative of subject-wise quizzes. UPSC Daily Subject Quiz will cover all topics under UPSC Civil Services syllabus like Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment, Science and Technology, International Relations, and more. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus.
Each day we will cover one new subject. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress. Come back tomorrow to solve the MCQs from History and Social Issues. Don’t miss to check the answers and explanations at the end of the quiz.
QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is correct about the election process of the President of India?
(a) The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of MPs of only the Lower House of the Parliament and MLAs of the states of Delhi and Puducherry.
(b) The votes are weighted, their value determined by the population of each state as per Census 1971.
(c) The nominated members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha, and the Assemblies, and members of state Legislative Councils, are part of the electoral college.
(d) Article 58 of the Indian Constitution provides for an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about the doctrine of basic structure is not correct?
(a) It is a form of judicial review that is used to test the legality of any legislation by the courts.
(b) It was evolved by the Supreme Court in the 1973 landmark ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala.
(c) It checks the constitutional amendments to ensure the amendment does not dilute the fundamentals of the Constitutional itself.
(d) The Parliament can either amend or destroy the basic structure.
QUESTION 3
Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the privileges and the powers of the parliamentarians?
(a) Article 100
(b) Article 105
(c) Article 109
(d) Article 108
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Inter-State Council?
(a) Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution by the Prime Minister.
(b) It was established as a permanent body by presidential order on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.
(c) The chairman of the council is the Prime Minister.
(d) The council inquires and advises in disputes between states, investigates and discusses subjects in which two states or state and Union have a common interest.
QUESTION 5
What are the conditions laid by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for a party to become a national party?
1. If it is recognised in six or more states.
2. If its candidates polled at least 6% of total valid votes in any four or more states in the last Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and had at least four MPs in the last Lok Sabha polls.
3. If it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from not less than three states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
QUESTION 6
Consider the following statements about Panchayat (Extension of the Scheduled Areas) Act, (PESA) 1996?
1. This act was enacted by the Centre to ensure self-governance through gram sabhas (village assemblies) for people living in scheduled areas.
2. It recognises the right of tribal communities, residents of the scheduled areas, to govern themselves through their own systems of self-government, and also acknowledges their traditional rights over natural resources.
3. PESA empowers gram sabhas to play a key role in approving development plans and controlling all social sectors.
4. State governments amend their respective Panchayat Raj Acts without making any law that would be inconsistent with the mandate of PESA.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 7
Consider the following statements about Committee of Parliament on Official Language:
1. The Committee of Parliament on Official Language was set up in 1976 under Section 4 of The Official Languages Act, 1963.
2. The Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister.
3. This Committee reviews the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes, and to make recommendations to increase the use of Hindi in official communications.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 8
Consider the following statements about the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013:
1. The Act provides for establishing a Lokpal headed by a Chairperson, who is or has been a Chief Justice of India, or is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person who fulfills eligibility criteria as specified.
2. The Lokpal’s jurisdiction involves inquiry into allegations of corruption against a current or former Prime Minister, a Union Minister, an MP and officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWERS TO MCQs
1. (b)
FYI:
— The Article 62(1) of the Constitution provides for “an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of President shall be completed before the expiration of the term”.
— The votes are weighted, their value determined by the population of each state as per Census 1971.
— The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of MPs of both Houses of Parliament and MLAs of the states of Delhi and Puducherry.
— The nominated members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Assemblies, and members of state Legislative Councils, are not part of the electoral college.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
2. (d)
FYI:
— The Doctrine of Basic Structure is a form of judicial review that is used to test the legality of any legislation by the courts. It was evolved by the Supreme Court in the 1973 landmark ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala.
— In a 7-6 verdict, a 13-judge Constitution Bench ruled that the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is inviolable, and could not be amended by Parliament.
— If a law is found to “damage or destroy” the “basic features of the Constitution”, the Court declares it unconstitutional. The test is applied to constitutional amendments to ensure the amendment does not dilute the fundamentals of the Constitutional itself.
— The court ruled that while Parliament has vast powers to change the Constitution, it cannot touch certain “basic features” or foundational principles that give the Constitution its coherence or identity. The Parliament can amend the basic structure but cannot destroy it.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
3. (b)
FYI:
Article 105 of the Constitution deals with “powers, privileges, etc of the Houses of Parliament and of the members and committees thereof”, and has four clauses. It reads:
— There shall be freedom of speech in Parliament.
— No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of any thing said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House of Parliament of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.
— In other respects, the powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament, and of the members and the committees of each House, shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law.
— The above clauses shall apply in relation to persons who by virtue of this Constitution have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, a House of Parliament or any committee thereof as they apply in relation to members of Parliament.”
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
4. (a)
FYI:
— The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution, which states that the President may constitute such a body if a need is felt for it.
— In 1988, the Sarkaria Commission suggested the Council should exist as a permanent body, and in 1990 it came into existence through a Presidential Order.
— The main functions of the Council are inquiring into and advising on disputes between states, investigating and discussing subjects in which two states or states and the Union have a common interest, and making recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action.
— The Prime Minister acts as the chairman of the Council, whose members include the Chief Ministers of all states and UTs with legislative assemblies, and Administrators of other UTs. Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Centre’s Council of Ministers, nominated by the Prime Minister, are also its members.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
5. (d)
FYI:
— As per the ECI’s Political Parties and Election Symbols, 2019 handbook, a political party would be considered a national party if:
It is recognised in four or more states. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
If its candidates polled at least 6% of total valid votes in any four or more states in the last Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and had at least four MPs in the last Lok Sabha polls. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
If it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from not less than three states. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— A party may gain or lose national party status from time to time, depending on the fulfillment of these laid-down conditions.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
6. (d)
FYI:
— The Panchayat (Extension of the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA, was enacted by the Centre to ensure self-governance through gram sabhas (village assemblies) for people living in scheduled areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— It legally recognises the right of tribal communities, residents of the scheduled areas, to govern themselves through their own systems of self-government, and also acknowledges their traditional rights over natural resources. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— PESA empowers gram sabhas to play a key role in approving development plans and controlling all social sectors which includes the processes and personnel who implement policies, exercising control over minor (non-timber) forest resources, minor water bodies and minor minerals, managing local markets, preventing land alienation and regulating intoxicants among other things. Hene, statement 3 is correct.
— State governments were required to amend their respective Panchayat Raj Acts without making any law that would be inconsistent with the mandate of PESA. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
7. (c)
FYI:
— The Committee of Parliament on Official Language was set up in 1976 under Section 4 of The Official Languages Act, 1963. Section 4 of the Act says “there shall be constituted a Committee on Official language, on a resolution to that effect being moved in either House of Parliament with the previous sanction of the President and passed by both Houses”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The Committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister, and has, in accordance with the provisions of the 1963 Act. The committee consists of 30 members, 20 MPs from Lok Sabha and 10 MPs from Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— The Committee reviews the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes, and to make recommendations to increase the use of Hindi in official communications. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— The Committee of Parliament on Official Language is constituted by the Home Ministry, and the panel submits its report to the President, who shall lay the report before each House of Parliament, and send it to all the State Governments.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
8. (c)
FYI:
— The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 came into force on January 16, 2014. The Act provides for establishing a Lokpal headed by a Chairperson, who is or has been a Chief Justice of India, or is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person who fulfills eligibility criteria as specified. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The other members, not exceeding eight, 50 per cent are to be judicial members, provided that not less than 50 per cent belong to the Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Other Backward Classes, or minority communities, or are women.
— The Lokpal and Lokayukta deal with complaints against public servants, including the Lokpal chairperson and members.
— The Lokpal’s jurisdiction involves inquiry into allegations of corruption against a current or former Prime Minister, a Union Minister, an MP and officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Tomorrow’s Subjects: History and Social Issues
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