UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 28 to August 03, 2024

1. Skin disease

2. Detrimental reproductive health in women

3. Congenital health issues in children

4. Contamination of the water resources

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation

— Nearly 40 years after the Bhopal gas tragedy, the Madhya Pradesh state government will finally proceed with its plan to incinerate 337 Metric Tonnes (MT) of toxic waste from the Union Carbide complex.

— One of the largest industrial disasters in history occurred on the night of December 2, 1984, in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Highly deadly Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) gas escaped from a pesticide plant controlled by Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) on the city’s outskirts, killing approximately 5,000 people.

— The survivors have been afflicted by ailments ranging from skin disease to detrimental reproductive health in women and congenital health issues in children born to those exposed to the gas.

— The scale of the environmental pollution has been massive — water sources surrounding the factory were contaminated and many hand pumps were sealed.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following countries are banned from participating in the Paris Olympics?

1. Russia

2. Ukraine

3. Belarus

4. Romania

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation

— Athletes from Russia and Belarus have been barred from competing in the ongoing Paris Olympics under their respective national flags.

— Many of them instead compete in a separate category known as Athlètes Individuels Neutres (AIN in French), which stands for Individual Neutral Athletes.

— The International Olympic Committee (IOC) first sanctioned the two countries shortly after Russia’s invasion of Ukraine began in 2022, only days after the Winter Olympics concluded in Beijing on February 20, 2022. It said the invasion broke the Olympic Truce, which states that nations must not attack one another between one week before the Olympic Games and one week after the Paralympic Games.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Oropouche fever, consider the following statements:

1. It is transmitted through the bites of infected midges and mosquitoes.

2. The disease has long been circulating in Central and South America.

3. There is no evidence of human-to-human transmission of the disease.

4. The symptoms of the disease are similar to dengue.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The first two deaths from Oropouche fever occurred in the Brazilian state of Bahia.

— Oropouche is common in Latin America and the Caribbean. The virus was initially identified in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955. However, it has been found throughout Europe. Italy reported its first case of Oropouche in June 2024. It was also the first instance to be identified in continental Europe.

— Oropouche virus disease spreads through the bites of infected midges and mosquitoes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The disease has long been spread throughout Central and South America, as well as the Caribbean. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Oropouche fever is caused by the Oropouche virus, which is often transmitted via the bite of the Culicoides paraensis midge.

— So far, there has been no proof of illness transfer from person to person. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Symptoms of the sickness are similar to dengue fever and often appear four to eight days after the bite. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Consider the following conditions:

1. Tropical zone

2. Cold and humid climate

3. Downward air motion

4. Hot and dry climate

Which of the above conditions is/are a suitable blend of conditions for lightning strikes?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation

— The Odisha government approved a proposal to plant 19 lakh palm trees to ward against the problem of deaths due to lightning strikes.

— A total of 3,790 people have lost their lives to lightning strikes in the last 11 years, with 791 alone in the previous three fiscal years due to the increased frequency of lightning strikes.

— Most lightning-related fatalities were reported from districts such as Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar, Balasore, Bhadrak, Ganjam, Dhenkanal, Cuttack, Sundargarh, Koraput and Nabarangpur.

— Lightning is a sudden and huge discharge of electricity in the atmosphere, some of which is directed towards Earth. Odisha is an eastern coastline state located in the tropical zone, with a hot, dry climate that creates ideal circumstances for lightning strikes. Hence, 1 and 4 are correct.

— According to the Annual Lightning Report 2023-2024, published by the Climate Resilient Observing Systems Promotion Council (CROPC) and the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), the highest number of cloud-to-lightning (CG) strikes occur in eastern and central India.

— Lightning comes from a parent cumulonimbus cloud. These thunderstorm clouds are formed wherever there is enough upward air motion, convective instability, and moisture to produce a deep cloud that reaches up to levels colder than freezing. Hence, 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.nssl.noaa.gov)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the appointment of the Governor of State, consider the following statements:

1. The President shall appoint the Governor of a State, which is mentioned in the Constitution of India.

2. The appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States is not allowed.

3. The qualifications of the Governor and the conditions of his office are not mentioned in the Constitution of India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— President Droupadi Murmu appointed Governors for Rajasthan, Telangana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Sikkim, Meghalaya, Assam, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh on Saturday (July 28).

— Article 153 of the Indian Constitution says “There shall be a Governor for each State.” A few years after the commencement of the Constitution, an amendment in 1956 laid down that “nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States”. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Article 155 says that the “Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Under Article 156, “the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President”, but his normal term of office will be five years.

— If the President withdraws her pleasure before the end of five years, the Governor must step down. Since the President acts on the help and advice of the Prime Minister and the Union Council of Ministers, the Governor is effectively appointed and removed by the central government.

— Articles 157 and 158 lay down the qualifications of the Governor and the conditions of his office. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The Governor must be an Indian citizen and at least 35 years old. The Governor may not be a member of Parliament or a state legislature, nor may he or she occupy any other profit-making post.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the indexation, consider the following statements:

1. It is the process of adjusting the original purchase price of an asset or investment in order to neutralise the impact of inflation.

2. If the asset was held for an extended period, then without indexation, the gains may appear extremely high.

3. The Union Budget for 2024-25 eliminates the indexation advantage available for calculating LTCG on property and gold.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The changes in the long-term capital gains (LTCG) tax regime, particularly the withdrawal of the indexation benefit, has emerged as one of the most contentious decisions announced in the Union Budget for 2024-25.

— Indexation is the process of adjusting the original purchase price of an asset or investment in order to neutralise the impact of inflation on it. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It entails increasing the cost of acquiring an asset depending on inflation throughout the period during which it was kept.

— Inflation diminishes the value of money over time, thus when an asset is sold or an investment is redeemed, indexation aids in determining the cost of acquisition while accounting for the impact of inflation throughout the holding period.

— The resulting purchase cost is referred to as the indexed acquisition cost. It resets the basis for calculating gains or losses on the sale or redemption. Returns calculated using the indexed cost of acquisition are often regarded as more realistic than absolute profits calculated using the actual price at the time of purchase.

— If profits from the sale of assets or redemption of investments are taxed, the absence of the indexation advantage would raise the tax burden, provided the tax rate remains constant.

— If the asset was held for an extended period, then without indexation, the gains may appear extremely high. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The revised LTCG regime suggested in Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman’s Union Budget for 2024-25, unveiled earlier this week, eliminates the indexation advantage used to calculate LTCG on property, gold, and other unlisted assets while lowering the LTCG tax rate from 20% to 12.5%. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following countries took steps to ban mining at an indigenous site surrounded by Kakadu National Park, home to one of the world’s largest deposits of high-grade uranium?

(a) Kazakhstan

(b) Azerbaijan

(c) Australia

(d) United States

Explanation

— Australia moved to prohibit mining at an Indigenous site bordered by Kakadu National Park, which contains one of the world’s greatest concentrations of high-grade uranium.

— Prime Minister Anthony Albanese said that the heritage-listed national park would be expanded to include the Jabiluka site, which has long been the target of mining firms attempting to exploit it against the wishes of its Indigenous custodians, the Mirarr people.

— After the uranium deposit was discovered at Jabiluka in the early 1970s, the Mirarr people and mining firms engaged in extensive legal battles.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Shompen tribes were recently in news. They belongs to:

(a) Lakshadweep Islands

(b) Kerala

(c) Odisha

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation

— The Central government’s Rs 72,000 crore Great Nicobar Island (GNI) infrastructure project will include the development of an airport for civilian and military usage, an international container transshipment terminal, and a township. However, it has encountered legal challenges from the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Calcutta High Court, both of which have jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

— Inadequate assessment of the impact on Shompen and Nicobarese tribal populations, as well as a failure to follow appropriate process while providing statutory permissions, were also highlighted. The Shompens are hunter-gatherers, and the project will most likely have an impact on the Nicobarese people’s ancestral grounds.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Consider the following pairs with reference to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites and their locations:

UNESCO World Heritage Site	Location
Saint Hilarion Monastery	Palestine
Phu Phrabat	Nepal
Hegmataneh	Argentina
Sado Island Gold Mines	Australia

Explanation

— The World Heritage Committee (WHC) decided to include the Palestinian site of Tell Umm Amer in both the UNESCO World Heritage Site List and the Lost of World Heritage in Danger during its 46th session in New Delhi.

— It is also known as the ‘Monastery of Saint Hilarion. The site lies in the Gaza Strip which continues to reel under Israel’s relentless assault.

UNESCO World Heritage Site	Location
Saint Hilarion Monastery	Palestine
Phu Phrabat	Thailand
Hegmataneh	Iran
Sado Island Gold Mines	Japan

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: whc.unesco.org)

QUESTION 10

Consider the following states with reference to the Indo-Myanmar border

1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Nagaland

3. Mizoram

4. Manipur

What is the correct order of these states from north to south?

(a) 1—4—2—3

(b) 1—3—4—2

(c) 1—2—3—4

(d) 1—2—4—3

Explanation

— Manipur Chief Minister N Biren Singh informed the Assembly that a survey to collect official reports on frequent landmine explosions along the Indo-Myanmar border, notably in Kamjong district, would be conducted.

— The Chief Minister was responding to a proposal put forward by Phungyar MLA Leishiyo Keishing on the third day of the present monsoon session.

— Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram share a border with Myanmar, running north to south.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

India’s first sunken museum was recently inaugurated at:

(a) Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi

(b) Mahabodhi Temple, Bodhgaya

(c) Ram Temple, Ayodhya

(d) Taj Mahal, Agra

Explanation

— The country’s first sunken museum at the Humayun Tomb complex — a UNESCO World Heritage Site — in Delhi was gurated on Monday.

— Union Culture and Tourism Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat is slated to inaugurate the new museum in the presence of Prince Rahim Aga Khan.

— The inauguration will coincide with the ongoing 46th session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee here.

— The museum, whose layout is inspired by the medieval ‘baolis’, or traditional water tanks, showcases the legacy of Mughal emperor Humayun, including lesser-known facets of his life, and the heritage of the Nizamuddin area over the last seven centuries.

— The finial of the Mughal monument (Humayun’s Tomb) which was knocked off in a 2014 storm is its “centre-piece”.

— Other old artefacts on display include ‘farmans’, an astrolabe, a celestial sphere of the 1840s era and a warrior’s helmet from approximately the 16th or the 17th century.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

With reference to Polaris Dawn Mission, consider the following statements:

1. This mission would reportedly feature the first ever private spacewalk.

2. It will be carried out by NASA and Falcon 9 rocket will launch the Polaris Dawn mission.

3. The Polaris Dawn crew will be the first to test Starlink laser-based communications in space.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Elon Musk led SpaceX has announced a delay in the launch of Polaris Dawn, a mission which would reportedly feature the first ever private spacewalk. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— During a press conference, SpaceX said that it was mainly focused upon the upcoming Crew-9 astronaut mission to the International Space Station (ISS) for NASA, it would launch by August 18.

— Polaris Dawn, which is a mission funded by billionaire Jared Isaacman and will be carried out by SpaceX, has been postponed to next month, sometime after the launch of Crew-9 for NASA.

— The Polaris Dawn crew will be the first to test Starlink laser-based communications in space, gathering critical data for future space communications systems required for missions to the Moon, Mars, and beyond. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: polarisprogram.com)

QUESTION 13

With reference to ‘Tarang Shakti’ Exercise 2024, consider the following statements:

1. It is the largest multilateral army exercise in India that will showcase the country’s defence prowess and provide a platform to participating forces to foster interoperability.

2. India’s defence partners – US, Germany, France, Russia and Israel will be participating in the exercise along with other countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Air forces from the US, Germany, France and several other countries will take part in ‘Tarang Shakti’, the largest multilateral air (not army) exercise in India that will showcase the country’s defence prowess and provide a platform to participating forces to foster interoperability, a top IAF official said on Wednesday. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— First phase of ‘Tarang Shakti’ will be held at Sulur in Tamil Nadu from August 6-14, and the second phase from August 29-September 14 at Rajasthan’s Jodhpur.

— Russia and Israel will not be participating in the exercise, officials said. These two countries are India’s defence partners. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Supreme Court judgment of 2014 in the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) vs Union of India case ruled that:

(a) LGBTQ community are equal citizens and underlined that there cannot be discrimination in law based on sexual orientation and gender.

(b) the right to choose one’s partner is a facet of the fundamental right to liberty and dignity.

(c) transgender people deserve the same rights as everyone else in the country to education, employment, healthcare and movement around the country.

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— 10 years of NALSA judgement: the Supreme Court judgment of 2014 in the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) vs Union of India case ruled that transgender people — 4.8 lakh as per the 2011 Census — deserve the same rights as everyone else in the country: to education, employment, healthcare and movement around the country.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to the Eco-Sensitive Zones, consider the following statements:

1. It is defined in the National Environment Policy, 2006.

2. The concept of an Eco-Sensitive Zone was conceived when the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002 was adopted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— On Friday, the Central government released the sixth iteration of a draft notification designating 56,825.7 square kilometres of the Western Ghats as an environmentally sensitive area (ESA) across Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

— The National Environment Policy (2006) defines Eco-Sensitive Zones as “areas/zones with identified environmental resources having incomparable values that require special attention for their conservation” due to their landscape, wildlife, biodiversity, historical, and natural values. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The concept of Eco-Sensitive Zone was developed during the XXI meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife on January 21, 2002, when the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002, was adopted. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— To protect the environment and biological integrity of areas outside protected areas, as well as other areas where an eco-system has been negatively impacted by anthropogenic and climatic factors, the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change has designated such areas as Eco-sensitive zones or areas.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: moef.gov.in)

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 21 to July 27, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 14 to July 20, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 07 to July 13, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 30 to July 06, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 23 to June 29, 2024

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