UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 31 to September 06, 2025

QUESTION 1

With reference to the particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs), consider the following statements:

1. These are a sub-category of Scheduled Tribes (STs) created based on the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission (1960-61).

2. PVTGs are enumerated separately in the census.

3. PVTGs are found only in Odisha.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) wrote to the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGI) last month, requesting them to consider enumerating particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) separately in the upcoming Census.

— PVTGs are a sub-category of Scheduled Tribes (STs), which show either a declining or stagnant population, geographical isolation, use of pre-agrarian practices (such as hunting and gathering), economic backwardness, and relatively low literacy.

— This category was created based on the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission (1960-61) — led by former Member of Parliament U N Dhebar — which had investigated the various issues faced by STs, and in consultation with state governments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Initially, 52 groups were identified as PVTGs. In 2006, the Centre added 23 more tribal groups to PVTGs, taking the total to 75. PVTGs are currently spread across 18 states, and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— PVTGs have never been enumerated separately in any census. However, since PVTGs are a sub-category of STs, some among the 75 groups are counted under the broad ST category. This is because many PVTGs are not listed separately and grouped under one nomenclature. Moreover, there are state-specific lists of STs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the infant mortality rate from the latest data of the 2023 Sample Registration Survey, consider the following statements:

1. India’s IMR has increased in the last decade.

2. Kerala remains the only state with a single-digit IMR.

3. Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh have the worst rate in the country, last with IMRs of 37 each.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Delhi, Himachal Pradesh and Karnataka have reduced their infant mortality rate (IMR) by more than half over the last decade, registering the biggest gains on a vital indicator of child health on which consistent progress has been made across the country.

— The latest data from the 2023 Sample Registration Survey shows that India’s IMR dropped more than 37 per cent in the last decade, from 40 deaths per 1,000 births in 2013 to 25 in 2023. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Kerala remains the only big state with a single-digit IMR. It saw the death of just five infants below the age of one per 1,000 births, a rate comparable to most developed countries. But the state happens to have the largest difference in the IMRs of boys and girls — nine compared to two. Smaller states such as Manipur, Sikkim and Goa also have single-digit IMRs, as do nearly all Union Territories. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, with IMRs of 37 each, have the worst rate in the country, followed by Odisha and Assam (30 each). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

The regions of Changthang, Mudh airstrip, and Suru Valley were in the news. They are located in:

(a) Sikkim

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Ladakh

(d) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

— Ladakh Lt Governor Kavinder Gupta has said his administration’s priority is to bridge the developmental gap between urban centres and distant hamlets in the region.

— “No village, however remote or difficult to access, will be left behind in the journey of progress and the administration’s priority is to bridge the developmental gap between urban centres and distant hamlets of the UT,” he said.

— Recalling his recent visits to Kargil and Suru Valley, Gupta stressed that such grassroots level tours help identify and address region-specific issues.

— Plans include expanding the road and telecom network across the union territory, developing tourist infrastructure in remote areas and setting up cafeterias, washrooms, and souvenir shops every 30 km along major routes to provide comfort to travellers and bikers.

— The fast-rising popularity of Changthang among visitors, particularly for attractions like the highest motorable road at Umling La Pass and the Astronomical Observatory. India’s focus is on strengthening defence infrastructure, such as the Mudh airstrip, which also enhances civil connectivity.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following organisations have signed the tripartite suspension of operation (SoO) agreement with the government of India and Manipur?

1. Kuki National Organisation (KNO)

2. National Democratic Front of Bodoland (NDFB)

3. National Liberation Front of Tripura

4. United People’s Front (UPF)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation

— The Coordinating Committee on Manipur Integrity (COCOMI) has condemned and opposed the Centre’s decision to extend the Suspension of Operation (SoO) Agreement with what it called “Chin-Kuki armed narco-terrorist groups”.

— The COCOMI, an umbrella group of several Meitei civil bodies, in a statement, alleged that the extension of the SoO agreement came despite the series of “terrorist and criminal” acts committed by Kuki-Chin militant groups. It said the decision runs completely against the interests of the indigenous people of Manipur.

— The Kuki National Organisation (KNO) and United People’s Front (UPF) signed the tripartite suspension of operation (SoO) agreement with the government of India and Manipur on August 22, 2008. Since then, successive governments have been extending the agreement after it expired. However, the pact has not been extended since violence-hit Manipur on May 3, 2023. The pact was extended on Thursday (September 4, 2025) in New Delhi.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the UPI-PayNow linkage, consider the following statements:

1. It enables users of the two fast payment systems in either country to make convenient, safe and cross-border funds transfers.

2. It is between India and the Maldives.

3. Funds can be transferred to/from India using only a Virtual Payment Address (VPA) and not by mobile number.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The prime Ministers of India and Singapore agreed to adopt a forward-looking and substantive roadmap aimed at setting the vision and direction for the next phase of bilateral relations — and deepen cooperation in eight key areas: economy, skills development, digitalisation, sustainability, connectivity, healthcare and medicine, people-to-people and cultural exchanges; and, defence and security.

UPI-PayNow linkage

— India and Singapore have launched cross-border linkage using their respective Fast Payment Systems, viz. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and PayNow. UPI and Pay Now are successful examples of our digital connectivity. It is also gratifying that 13 new Indian banks have joined this initiative. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The UPI-PayNow integration allows users of either country’s fast payment systems to make convenient, safe, immediate, and cost-effective cross-border financial transfers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Funds can be transferred to or from India using only the UPI ID, mobile number, or Virtual Payment Address (VPA). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— This interlinkage is consistent with the G20’s financial inclusion aims of facilitating faster, cheaper, and more transparent cross-border payments, and it will mark a key milestone in the development of cross-border payment infrastructure between India and Singapore.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.pib.gov.in)

QUESTION 6

Which of the following acts have been replaced by the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025?

1. The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920

2. The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939

3. The Foreigners Act, 1946

4. The Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Over the past few days, the government has notified various Rules and Orders under The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, which came into effect on September 1.

— The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025, was passed by Lok Sabha on March 27 and by Rajya Sabha on April 2, and received the assent of the President on April 4.

— The Act replaced The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920; The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939; The Foreigners Act, 1946; and The Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000, consolidating India’s regime for the entry, stay, movement, and exit of foreigners under a single statute.

— The four separate Acts of 1920, 1939, 1946, and 2000 had interlocking but sometimes confusing provisions.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Right to Education (RTE) Act, consider the following statements:

1. The Act guarantees free elementary education for children aged 6-14.

2. The Act does not have provisions for minimum standards of pupil-teacher ratios.

3. Private unaided schools are required to reserve 25% of entry-level seats for children from disadvantaged groups reimbursed by the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The Supreme Court cast doubt on a Constitution Bench judgment from a decade ago that exempted minority educational institutions from the provisions of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act).

About RTE Act

— The Act guarantees free elementary education for children of ages 6-14. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Government schools are required to provide free education to all enrolled children; aided schools must provide free seats proportionate to the aid they receive.

— Private unaided schools are required to reserve 25% of entry-level seats for children from disadvantaged groups, reimbursed by the state (Section 12(1)(c)). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The Act sets minimum standards of pupil-teacher ratios, trained teachers, infrastructure, and libraries, bans corporal punishment and capitation fees, and places an obligation on all schools to contribute to universal education. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to cancer in India, consider the following statements:

1. Men accounted for a higher proportion of the total cancer cases.

2. There has been an increase in the incidence of oral cancer in the country.

3. Lung cancers are easier to detect than Breast cancer.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Analysis of data from 43 cancer registries revealed that the lifetime risk of developing cancer in India stood at 11%, with an estimated 15.6 lakh cancer cases and 8.74 lakh cancer deaths occurring in 2024.

— Based on these registries’ data from 2015-19, researchers have identified key trends on the incidence of cancer with significant policy implications.

Key trends

— Women accounted for a higher proportion of the total cancer cases (51.1%) recorded in the registries but a lower proportion of deaths (45%). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Breast and cervical cancers, which together account for 40% of cases in women, are easier to detect early and have better outcomes. Breast cancer is easier to detect early as women may feel the lump themselves. Lung cancer, in comparison, does not have such easily identifiable symptoms which would lead someone to seek care. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— There has been an increase in the incidence of oral cancer in the country. In fact, the data show that oral cancer has overtaken lung cancer as the most common cancer in men. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The incidence of cancers was the highest in the Northeast, with the highest occurrence of cervical cancer, lung cancer in women, and oral cancer in women all reported from states in this region.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to an earthquake, consider the following statements:

1. Shallow earthquakes generally have a depth of between zero and 70 km.

2. Deeper quakes are generally more dangerous than shallow quakes.

3. Shallow earthquakes spread farther as seismic waves move radially upwards to the surface.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— An earthquake of 6.0 magnitude struck north-east Afghanistan, killing more than 800 people and injuring at least 2,000.

— An earthquake is an intense shaking of the ground caused by movement under the Earth’s surface. It happens when two blocks of the Earth suddenly slip past one another. This releases stored-up ‘elastic strain’ energy in the form of seismic waves, which spread through the Earth and cause the shaking of the ground.

— Shallow quakes are generally more dangerous as they carry more energy when they emerge to the surface, when compared to quakes that occur deeper underneath the surface. Shallow earthquakes generally have a depth of between zero and 70 km. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Deeper quakes do indeed spread farther as seismic waves move radially upwards to the surface, they lose energy while travelling greater distances. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Ebola disease, consider the following statements:

1. It is caused by a group of viruses, known as orthoebolaviruses.

2. It was first discovered in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and is found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa.

3. It can be contracted through bodily fluids.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— A new Ebola outbreak in Congo is suspected of causing 15 deaths among 28 people with symptoms, the health ministry in the central African country said.

— Ebola disease is caused by a group of viruses, known as orthoebolaviruses. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Orthoebolaviruses were discovered in 1976 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and are found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Ebola virus is highly contagious and can be contracted through bodily fluids such as vomit, blood, or semen. The disease it causes is a rare but severe — and often fatal — illness in people. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

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