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UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on Council of Ministers, Contingency Fund and more (Week 135)

Are you preparing for UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims? Check your progress and revise your topics through this quiz on Polity and Governance.

UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance (Week 135)Check your progress and revise your topics through this quiz on Polity and Governance. Find a question on the council of ministers in today's quiz. (File Image)

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.

🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for October 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

QUESTION 1

With reference to the Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:

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1. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the President.

3. The President administers the oath to the Minister.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

— The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent. of the total number of members of the House of the People.

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— The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.

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2. A title related to academic distinction can be conferred by the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Article 18 of the Constitution of India provides for the Abolition of titles.

— No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State (It means military or academic titles are exceptions to the general prohibition). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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— No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign State.

— No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Contingency Fund, consider the following statements:

1. The President may, by law, establish a Contingency Fund.

2. These funds are used for the purposes of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation of such expenditure by Parliament by law under article 115 or article 116.

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3. The Legislature of a State cannot establish a Contingency Fund.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Parliament may by law establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of an imprest to be entitled “the Contingency Fund of India” into which shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The said Fund shall be placed at the disposal of the President to enable advances to be made by him out of such Fund for the purposes of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation of such expenditure by Parliament by law under article 115 or article 116. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Legislature of a State may by law establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of an imprest to be entitled “the Contingency Fund of the State” into which shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law, and the said Fund shall be placed at the disposal of the Governor. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

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QUESTION 4

The recent Bollywood film, Haq, is inspired by the:

(a) 1985 Shah Bano case

(b) Kesavananda Bharati case

(c) Indira Sawhney case

(d) Maneka Gandhi case

Explanation

— The Bollywood film Haq, set to be released this Friday (November 7) and starring Yami Gautam and Emraan Hashmi, is inspired by the 1985 Shah Bano case.

— The case began with a 62-year-old Muslim woman’s plea for maintenance from her husband after their divorce, sparking a national debate on secularism, minority rights and the need for a Uniform Civil Code (UCC). We recall the background, the Supreme Court verdict, and its legacy.

— In 1978, Shah Bano Begum, a mother of five from Indore, was divorced by her husband and advocate Mohammed Ahmad Khan, after 43 years of marriage. He divorced her by pronouncing an irrevocable ‘talaq’. For a few months, he paid her a small maintenance sum, but then stopped.

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— With no means to support herself, Shah Bano filed a petition in court under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. This is a secular provision that obligates a person with sufficient means to provide maintenance to those he is responsible for, including his wife, who is unable to maintain herself. The explanation in the section clarifies that “wife” includes a divorced woman who has not remarried.

— A local court directed Khan to pay a nominal Rs 25 per month. On appeal, the Madhya Pradesh High Court increased the amount to Rs 179.20 per month. Khan then appealed to the Supreme Court.

— On April 23, 1985, a five-judge Constitution Bench, headed by then Chief Justice YV Chandrachud, delivered a unanimous judgment. The court dismissed Khan’s appeal and upheld the High Court order.

— The court held that Section 125 of the CrPC is a secular provision that applies to all citizens irrespective of their religion. It stated that the provision was enacted to prevent destitution, and there was no reason to exclude Muslim women from its ambit. It concluded that if a divorced Muslim woman is unable to maintain herself, she is entitled to claim maintenance from her former husband even after the iddat period.

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— The bench ruled that there was no conflict between Section 125 and Muslim personal law on the question of a husband’s obligation to his divorced wife. It referred to the Quran to hold that it imposes an obligation on a Muslim husband to provide for his divorced wife. The judgment also expressed regret that Article 44 of the Constitution, which suggests that the state institute a Uniform Civil Code, remained a “dead letter”.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:

1. It is a Constitutional Body.

2. It was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950.

3. It consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

4. It is responsible for conducting elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State but not for the office of President.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The Constitution of India has vested in the Election Commission of India the superintendence, direction and control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body. The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. The Commission celebrated its Golden Jubilee in 2001. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Originally, the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— For the first time two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. The concept of multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision making power by majority vote.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: http://www.eci.gov.in)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 129 and 130)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 134)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 134)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 134)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 134)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 134)

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