UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on special intensive revision, Governor of an Indian State and more (Week 123)

QUESTION 1

Which of the following statements is not correct about the Governor of an Indian State?

(a) There is no impeachment process for removing the Governor.

(b) The Governor shall hold office for a fixed period of five years.

(c) The qualification and condition of the office are mentioned in the constitution.

(d) State Governor shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.

Explanation

— The Article 153 of the Constitution says “There shall be a Governor for each State.” A few years after the commencement of the Constitution, an amendment in 1956 laid down that “nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States”.

— Article 155 says that the “Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal”. Under Article 156, “the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President”, but his normal term of office will be five years. If the President withdraws her pleasure before the completion of five years, the Governor has to step down.

— Since the President acts on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the Union Council of Ministers, in effect, the Governor is appointed and removed by the central government.

— Article 157 lays down the qualifications of the Governor, The Governor must be a citizen of India and should have completed the age of 35 years.

— Article 158 lays down the conditions of his office, The Governor should not be a member of Parliament or a state legislature, and must not hold any other office of profit.

— The Governor enjoys certain powers under the Constitution — such as giving or withholding assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature; determining the time needed for a party to prove its majority in the state Assembly; or, in cases such as a hung verdict in an election, which party must be called first to prove its majority — which make his position very significant.

— The Constitution lays down no provisions for the manner in which the Governor and the state must engage publicly when there is a difference of opinion and there is no provision for impeaching the Governor.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following committees are associated with electoral reforms?

1. Tarkunde Committee

2. Dinesh Goswami Committee

3. Indrajit Gupta Committee

4. Chelliah Committee

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— The electoral reforms seek to uphold the integrity and transparency of the electoral system by creating an environment that is free from manipulation, money and muscle power, and aligned with democratic values and principles of fairness and justice.

— Several committees have been instrumental in proposing reforms to address the challenges in the electoral process. Some of the key reports included those by the Tarkunde Committee (1975), the Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990), and the Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998).

— These panels proposed important improvements to ensure free and fair elections. Some of them have already been adopted, such as requiring candidates to disclose their financial, educational, and criminal records, decreasing the voting age from 21 to 18, implementing electronic voting machines (EVMs), and enhancing security.

— Despite these reforms, the past Chief Election Commissioners cited four significant issues that continue to impede India’s free and fair elections.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

The “special intensive revision” (SIR) is associated with:

(a) Election Commission

(b) President of India

(c) Supreme Court

(d) CAG

Explanation

— The prospect of normal functioning of Parliament in the Monsoon Session seems to have faded due to the continuing face-off between the government and the Opposition over the latter’s vehement demand for a discussion on the Election Commission (EC)’s controversial special intensive revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in poll-bound Bihar.

— While carrying out the SIR of the electoral rolls, ERO of each Assembly Constituency shall be responsible for ensuring that no eligible citizen is left out while no ineligible person is included in the Electoral Roll.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The border dispute over Belagavi, Karwar and Nipani are associated with:

(a) Kerala and Karnataka

(b) Karnataka and Goa

(c) Maharashtra and Karnataka

(d) Maharashtra and Goa

Explanation

— The border dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka is intensifying, with both states hardening their stance. Both Houses of the Maharashtra Assembly passed a unanimous resolution to support a legal battle to resolve the dispute which came just days after the Karnataka Assembly passed a resolution reiterating Karnataka’s position on the issue.

— The border dispute over Belagavi, Karwar and Nipani in North Karnataka is long-standing. When state boundaries were redrawn on linguistic lines as per the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, Belagavi became part of the erstwhile Mysore state.

— Maharashtra claims that parts of Belagavi, where Marathi is the dominant language, should remain in Maharashtra.

— In October 1966, the Centre set up the Mahajan Commission, led by former Chief Justice of India Mehr Chand Mahajan, to resolve the border dispute in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Kerala.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights is mentioned in:

(a) Article 31B

(b) Article 31C

(c) Article 32

(d) Article 33

Explanation

— Article 32 of the Constitution of India provides for the remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part.

— The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by this Part is guaranteed.

— The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 6

Consider the following pairs:

1. 1st Attorney General of India : K T Shah

2. 1st Election Commissioner of India : Sukumar Sen

3. 1st Chief Justice of independent India : H.J. Kania

How many of the above given pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one of the three pairs

(b) Only two of the three pairs

(c) All of the three pairs

(d) None of the three pairs

Explanation

— Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad was the first Attorney General of India. K.T.Shah was the member of the Constituent Assembly of India.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament though he/she is not a member of either House of Parliament.

2. The maximum strength of members of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution is 552.

3. The Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha but in the Rajya Sabha he can’t speak.

Which of the above mentioned statements is/are not true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

— Under Article 88, the “Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member”. However, he “shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote” in the House.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements with reference to Delimitation Commissions in India:

1. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.

2. The orders of the Delimitation Commission come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India.

3. In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

According to eci.gov.in,

— “The job of delimitation is assigned to a high power body. Such a body is known as Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission. In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India in this behalf.”

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 121)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 122)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 122)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 122)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 122)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 122)

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