UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 26 to November 01, 2025

QUESTION 1

With reference to the Maratha Empire, consider the following statements:

1. The Maratha Empire began with the coronation of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1674.

2. Chhatrapati Shahu was appointed as the first Peshwa in 1714.

3. The borders of the Maratha empire were never expanded to Malwa, Gujarat and Bundelkhand.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— BJP’s Rajya Sabha MP Medha Kulkarni came under fire last week for leading a march of Hindu activists and “purifying” a site at the historic Shaniwar Wada in Pune, days after a few Muslim women visitors offered namaz there.

— Shaniwar Wada was the home of the Peshwas, the trusted and powerful Prime Ministers of the Chhatrapati rulers of the Maratha Empire and the leaders of the Maratha Confederacy. The Maratha Empire began with the coronation of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1674, and by the 18th century, it dominated large parts of the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Chhatrapati Shahu, the grandson of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, appointed Balaji Vishwanath Bhat as the first Peshwa in 1714. A Peshwa’s duties spanned everything from administration to diplomacy and the expansion of the kingdom. Balaji Vishwanath Bhat died in 1720 and was succeeded by his son, the 20-year-old Peshwa Baji Rao I, an astute military genius and warrior who extended the borders of the Maratha empire to Malwa, Gujarat and Bundelkhand, taking it almost to the gates of Delhi. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Mandal Commission, consider the following statements:

1. It was formed during the Morarji Desai-led Janata Party government in 1979.

2. Its report recommended 27% reservation for OBCs in government jobs and educational institutions.

3. The recommendations of the Commission were implemented in 1981.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Mandal’s tenure as chief minister of Bihar was brief, remarkable mainly for giving Bihar its first Yadav CM. History remembers him as the head of the Second OBC Commission (or the Mandal Commission), formed during the Morarji Desai-led Janata Party government in 1979. Its 1980 report recommended 27% reservation for OBCs in government jobs and educational institutions. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— After the Congress government’s inaction, it was only in 1990 that the government of Prime Minister V P Singh announced its intention to implement the report. Despite severe backlash from upper castes, it paved the way for OBC assertion and fundamentally altered the politics of North India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Venkateswara Temple was recently in the news due to a stampede. The temple is located in:

(a) Telangana

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Kerala

(d) Karnataka

Explanation

— The stampede at the Venkateswara Temple in Kasibugga in Srikakulam district, Andhra Pradesh, has brought into focus three issues that could have worsened the situation, officials say.

— Officials also said the entry and exit points of the temple were the same. “The sprawling campus of the temple did not have separate entry and exit points. People were trying to leave the spot and enter the premises simultaneously,” a source said.

— The Kashibbugga Venkateswara Temple spans 12 acres and is visited by devotees from far and wide.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Single-cell RNA sequencing (scRNA-seq), consider the following statements:

1. It is a technique that analyses the gene expression of individual cells.

2. It involves isolating single cells, converting their RNA to cDNA.

3. It allows researchers to study cell-to-cell variability.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Google DeepMind recently announced that its AI model C2S-Scale had generated a “novel hypothesis” about how cancer cells behave, which was later confirmed through lab experiments. The research was conducted in collaboration with Yale University. The lab believes this marks a milestone for AI in science and opens up a promising new direction for developing cancer treatments.

— C2S-Scale is a family of large language models (LLMs) built upon Google’s Gemma-2 architecture. Think of it as a specialised AI model that we’ve taught to understand the language of biology in the form of gene expression inside of cells. We do this by taking the complex gene activity inside a single cell — measured by a technique called single-cell RNA sequencing (scRNA-seq) — and translating it into a simple “cell sentence,” which is a list of the most active genes in order of their activity.

— Single-cell RNA sequencing (scRNA-seq) is an effective technology for analysing the gene expression of individual cells, offering a high-resolution perspective of cellular variation within a population. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It entails isolating individual cells, transcribing their RNA to cDNA, and then sequencing them to determine which genes are expressed in each cell. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— This enables researchers to investigate unusual cell types, cell-to-cell diversity, and complicated biological processes such as development and disease in ways that bulk RNA sequencing, which averages across all cells, cannot. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following commands of the Indian Army successfully conducted a largescale drone and counter-drone exercise, Vayu Samanvay-II?

(a) Northern Command

(b) Eastern Command

(c) Southern Command

(d) South Western Command

Explanation

— Indian Army successfully conducted a largescale drone and counter-drone exercise, Vayu Samanvay-II in forward areas of desert sector under the aegis of Pune-headquartered Southern Command.

— The exercise was designed to validate Army’s preparedness for next-generation warfare by integrating various aerial and ground assets and fusion of multi-domain command and control centres in a realistic, electronic warfare and contested operational environment.

— “The two-day exercise focused on developing and testing doctrinal precepts for drone and counter drone operations strengthening the Indian Army’s response capability against evolving aerial threats. The desert terrain and weather conditions provided an ideal testing ground for the both operations,” a press statement from the Army said.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following statements:

1. It provides for a hundred days of wage employment in rural areas who are willing to do unskilled manual work.

2. Recently, the Supreme Court cleared the path for restarting the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) in West Bengal after a gap of three and a half years.

3. Central and State Governments provide financial assistance in the ratio of 50:50.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Supreme Court cleared the path for restarting the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) in West Bengal after a gap of three and a half years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Following the enactment of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, a hundred days of wage employment are annually provided as a legal right to adults in rural areas who are willing to do unskilled manual work. Central and State Governments provide financial assistance in the ratio of 90:10, respectively, with the Centre fully funding the wages. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— Before the Centre suspended the MG-NREGS in 2022, West Bengal was among the top states — 51 to 80 lakh families in the state availed it annually between 2014-15 and 2021-22.

— The Centre had stopped the release of funds to West Bengal with effect from March 9, 2022, “due to non-compliance of directives of Central Government”, by invoking Section 27 of the MGNREGA, 2005. Since then, no work under the NREGS has happened in the state.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, which is to determine “the criteria for determining seniority in the cadre of Higher Judicial Services”, has been led by:

(a) Justice B.R. Gavai

(b) Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul

(c) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

(d) Justice Surya Kant

Explanation

— A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, led by Chief Justice B.R. Gavai, began hearing arguments on Tuesday (October 28) to determine “the criteria for determining seniority in the cadre of Higher Judicial Services.”

— At stake is the system that governs promotions for judges who enter the district judge cadre through two different routes: those promoted from the lower judiciary and those directly recruited from the Bar. The issue affecting career progression stems from the significant age difference between the two streams at the time of entry into the District Judge cadre: direct recruits often join in their mid-30s, while promotees reach the same post in their mid-40s after years of service in lower courts. Since seniority is largely decided by the date of entry (often through a 40-point roster system), the promotee judges tend to fall behind in the gradation list that determines eligibility for further promotion.

— At the heart of the issue is whether seniority lists and promotion procedures have produced indirect discrimination against one group. The court’s earlier observations towards a “proper balance ” suggest the bench may look for a mechanism that ensures parity without disrupting existing structures.

— District judges enter the higher judicial service in two ways: either through promotion from lower ranks or by direct recruitment from the bar. While promotees form nearly three-fourths of the cadre, direct recruits often rise faster.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following agreements:

1. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA)

2. Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA)

3. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)

The above mentioned agreements were signed between:

(a) India-Russia

(b) India-China

(c) India-France

(d) India-United States

Explanation

— As they continue to negotiate a bilateral trade deal and the thorny issue of a tariff penalty by Washington over Delhi’s purchase of Russian oil, India and the US signed a 10-year Framework for the US-India Major Defence Partnership, signalling stable ties between the two countries in the defence sector.

— The pact was signed following a bilateral meeting between Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and his US counterpart Pete Hegseth on the sidelines of 12th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting – Plus (ADMM-Plus) in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.

— Between 2016 and 2020, the two sides signed four more agreements, including the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016, the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) in 2018, and the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) in 2020.

— In August 2024, both countries signed a Security of Supply Arrangement (SOSA) and Memorandum of Agreement regarding the Assignment of Liaison Officers, among other bilateral military agreements that have enhanced defence and security cooperation.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Which of the following states has the prevalence of chronic kidney disease among agricultural workers?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Bihar

Explanation

— In a first-of-its-kind statewide sweep across Tamil Nadu’s farm belt, a Lancet Regional Health – Southeast Asia paper reports that “the prevalence of chronic kidney disease among agricultural workers in Tamil Nadu is 5.31%, with about half of these due to CKDu (Chronic Kidney Disease of Unknown Etiology)” – a puzzling form of the disease not explained by diabetes or high blood pressure. The research, published in The Lancet Regional Health – Southeast Asia, spans 3,350 adults and two rounds of testing timed to the state’s heat cycle.

— Every participant had a clinical exam and lab tests (Phase 1). Those whose first blood test suggested trouble were invited back three months later (Phase 2) to verify whether the problem persisted. As per global rules, chronic kidney disease (a long-term loss of filtering ability) must last at least three months to count.

— The key lab yardstick was an estimate of filtering strength derived from blood creatinine, reported as the estimated glomerular filtration rate (a number that falls when kidneys can’t clear waste efficiently).

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Whose birth anniversary is celebrated as ‘Rashtriya Ekta Diwas’ or National Unity Day?

(a) Vallabhbhai Patel

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Mahatma Gandhi

(d) B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Gujarat paid tribute to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel on his birth anniversary, celebrated as ‘Rashtriya Ekta Diwas’ or National Unity Day, and recalled his immense contribution towards unifying India.

— To mark the occasion, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid floral tributes to Sardar Patel at the Statue of Unity in Gujarat’s Ekta Nagar and took a ‘pledge of unity’. He also announced the release of a special commemorative coin and stamp as a tribute.

— National Unity Day is observed every year on October 31. The day marks the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and honours his pivotal role in fostering national and political integration and unity in India.

— India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, played a key role in bringing the country together after independence in 1947. He was responsible for uniting more than 560 princely states, which made up about 40 per cent of India’s land and population, into one nation.

— His strong and steady leadership during the challenges of partition earned him the title “Iron Man of India”. Patel also set up the All-India Services, known as the “Steel Frame” of the nation, to help maintain India’s stability and integrity in the years ahead.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

In the second Test match between India and South Africa to be played in Guwahati from November 22, the players will, for the first time, have a tea break before lunch. Why has this change been introduced?

(a) Because of the local weather conditions, where heavy dew affects play later in the day

(b) Because play is scheduled to start earlier than usual due to expected poor light in the evening

(c) Because of an experimental change in the format introduced by the ICC for day-night Tests

(d) Because the match is being played in an area with early sunrise and sunset

Explanation

— Toss, lunch, tea, stumps (end of day’s play) … is the usual sequence in Test matches. But it’s about to be upturned in the second Test match between India and South Africa to be played in Guwahati from November 22. For the first time, the players will have a tea break first, before lunch. It’s due to the early sunrise and sunset in the eastern part of the country.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

With reference to Kerala Piravi Day, consider the following statements:

1. In 1956, Travancore-Cochin was merged with Malabar and Kasaragod taluk of South Canara, leading to the formation of modern-day Kerala.

2. A newly formed unified territory of Malayalam speakers was a result of States Reorganisation Commission’s recommendation of the rebordering of 16 several states and 3 union territories along linguistic lines.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— November 1 is a special day for Keralites around the world as the date marks the birth of the modern state of Kerala. Organised on linguistic principles, the modern borders of Kerala came into existence in 1956 when Travancore-Cochin state was merged with Malabar district of Madras and Kasaragod taluk of South Canara district.

— The Nagpur Congress of 1920 had accepted linguistic provinces and submitted to the British government of India a memorandum for the recognition of nationalities of Kannada, Odiyas, Andhras, Tamils, Bengalis and Jharkhandis along linguistic lines. The report submitted said the following:

— “If those who speak the same language form a compact and self- contained area, so situated and endowed as to be able to support its existence as a separate province, there is no doubt that the use of a common speech is a strong and natural basis for provincial individuality.”

— The appeal to linguistic identities was a crucial factor in creating national consciousness during the freedom struggle. Gandhi had in fact advocated the reorganisation of the Indian National Congress along linguistic lines rather than along the lines drawn by the British administration. When a few provinces were created by dividing the Bengal Presidency in early twentieth century, it was just one among many such instances of territorial reorganisation along linguistic lines which came to follow decades latter. The agitation for recognition of linguistic identities intensified after the Constitution of India came into effect in 1950. Under constant pressure to reformulate the territories of states in India, the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) came into existence in 1953. After two years of examination, the SRC recommended the rebordering of 16 several states and 3 union territories along linguistic lines. A newly formed unified territory of Malayalam speakers was a result of this institutional reorganisation.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Consider the following statements:

1. Recently, three Indian companies had received licences for importing rare earth minerals from China.

2. The US controls 61 per cent of the production and 92 per cent of the processing capacity of rare earth magnets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) on Thursday confirmed that three Indian companies had received licences for importing rare earth minerals from China. “Some Indian companies have received licences for importing rare earth magnets from China… We have to look at how the US and China talks will play into our domain…” MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said. The companies are Continental India, Hitachi India, and Jay Ushin. Like other countries, India has also faced difficulties in the procurement of rare earth magnets after China imposed restrictions on their export in April.

— On October 9, China’s Ministry of Commerce tightened the export restrictions with a new law under which foreign entities had to obtain a licence from China to export rare earth materials. China controls 61 per cent of the production and 92 per cent of the processing capacity of rare earth magnets.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to Know Your Vehicle (KYV) process for FASTag users, consider the following statements:

1. Recently NHAI simplified KYV rules to strengthen the FASTag ecosystem as it is preparing to implement a multi-lane free flow (MLFF) system, a barrier-less tolling system, at key sections of National Highways.

2. As per the new rule, if multiple vehicles are registered against a single person’s name, the person will have to get an additional ‘Registration Certificate’ (RC) issued from the Vahan portal.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— In a relief to vehicle owners, the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has simplified the Know Your Vehicle (KYV) process for FASTag users.

— According to the revised guidelines, the side photographs of the Car, Jeep or Van will no longer be required. Only a front picture showing the number plate and FASTag on the windshield will be required to be uploaded. Earlier, the users had to upload front and side photos of the vehicle. The side image was meant to capture the vehicle axles.

— NHAI said that provisions will be made to automatically fetch RC details from the government’s VAHAN database when the user enters the Vehicle Number, Chassis Number, or Mobile Number. If multiple vehicles are registered against a single mobile number, the user will be able to select the vehicle for which they wish to complete KYV, NHAI said.

— Most importantly, now the FASTags issued before the KYV policy will remain active unless complaints are received for loose tags or misuse. Also, issuer banks will send SMS reminders to the users to complete KYV.

— The simplification of KYV rules is part of NHAI’s initiative to strengthen the FASTag ecosystem as it is preparing to implement a multi-lane free flow (MLFF) system, a barrier-less tolling system, at key sections of National Highways.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

What is the overarching theme of India Maritime Week (IMW) 2025?

(a) From Heritage to Horizon: India as a Global Maritime Hub

(b) Charting a Green, Digital & Inclusive Blue Economy

(c) Uniting Oceans, One Maritime Vision

(d) Deals, Delegates & Direction: India’s Maritime Future

Explanation

— India is ready to play the role of a steady lighthouse providing global players vast opportunities for expansion and investments in the country’s maritime sector with massive potential, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said on Wednesday.

— Addressing the India Maritime Week-2025, which has participants from more than 85 countries, Modi spoke about the reforms undertaken in the past 10 years to give new impetus to the maritime sector.

— The Inaugural Ceremony on October 27 marked the commencement of India Maritime Week (IMW) 2025, held under the overarching theme “Uniting Oceans, One Maritime Vision.”

— IMW 2025 will convene maritime leaders and industry stakeholders from government, industry, academia, think tanks, and international organizations for over 100 high-level dialogues, fostering strategic partnerships and investment opportunities in the advancement of innovation, sustainability, and a globally connected maritime future.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

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