1. It is a virus of the Rhabdoviridae family.
2. Phlebotomine sandflies are considered as vectors of CHPV.
3. The virus resides in the salivary glands of these insects.
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4. The virus does not transmit through bites to humans or other vertebrates like domestic animals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
— The Gujarat government reported that six children had died in the state as a result of probable Chandipura virus (CHPV) infection since July 10. So far, 12 suspected cases have been reported.
— CHPV is a virus from the Rhabdoviridae family, which also includes the lyssavirus that causes rabies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Several sandfly species, including Phlebotomine sandflies and Phlebotomus papatasi, as well as several mosquito species, such as Aedes aegypti (also a dengue vector), are thought to be CHPV vectors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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— The virus lives in the salivary glands of these insects and can be transmitted to humans or other vertebrates such as domestic animals via bites. Hence, statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is not correct.
— The virus infection can then spread to the central nervous system, resulting in encephalitis, which is inflammation of the brain’s active structures.
— CHPV infection begins with flu-like symptoms such as a sudden onset of fever, body aches, and headache. It may then develop altered sensation, convulsions, and encephalitis. Children under the age of 15 have historically been the most vulnerable.
— According to research, the infection generally advances swiftly following encephalitis, potentially leading to death within 24-48 hours of hospitalisation.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
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QUESTION 2
The drugs — Wegovy (semaglutide) and Zepbound (tirzepatide) were recently in the news. They are used for:
(a) Treating type 2 diabetes
(b) Inflammation of the active tissues of the brain
(c) Anti Microbial Resistance
(d) Respiratory distress
Explanation
— In recent years, the development of new weight loss medicines has revolutionised obesity therapy, particularly in the United States and Europe.
— An expert committee of India’s medicines authority approved tirzepatide last week, marking a first. Following a consideration of this proposal, the regulator will provide final permission for the drug, allowing its producer, Eli Lilly, to launch it in the Indian market.
— In 2017, the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) authorised Danish pharmaceutical firm Novo Nordisk’s Ozempic, which contains the active component semaglutide, to treat type 2 diabetes.
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— The FDA has approved Wegovy (semaglutide) and Zepbound (tirzepatide) for chronic weight management in adults. These medicines can be prescribed to people who are obese (with a BMI of 30 or higher) or overweight (with a BMI of 27 to 30) and have at least one other weight-related health condition.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 3
With reference to the Bhil community, consider the following statements:
1. It is the largest tribe in India.
2. The tribe mainly resides in southern India.
3. Mangarh massacre, which took place six years before Jallianwalla Bagh is associated with the Bhil community.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation
— A large number of people from the Bhil tribe recently gathered at a rally in Rajasthan’s Mangarh Dham, where Banswara’s Member of Parliament Rajkumar Roat again raised the “long due” demand for an independent ‘Bhil state’.
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— The concept of a tribal state encompassing parts of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra has been suggested before.
— The Bharatiya Tribal Party (BTP) and other regional parties have historically advocated for a separate tribal state in western India. The BTP was created in Gujarat in 2017 with this topic as a primary focus.
— Bhil is India’s second largest tribe. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— The Bhil tribal community is primarily concentrated in Rajasthan, western Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and northern Maharashtra. Some families have gone to other states, such as Tripura, to work in tea estates. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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— The Bhil tribe is divided into four primary groups: Bhil Garasia, Vasave Bhil, Pawra Bhil, and Tadai Bhil.
— The Mangarh massacre, which occurred six years before Jallianwalla Bagh, is frequently referred to as the “Adivasi Jallianwala”. On November 17, 1913, British forces killed hundreds of Bhil tribals in the highlands of Mangarh, near the Rajasthan-Gujarat boundary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: trti.gujarat.gov.in)
QUESTION 4
With reference to the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO), consider the following statements:
1. It is a climate phenomenon characterised by changes in sea temperatures along the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
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2. It can alter and interfere with the global atmospheric circulation.
3. It does not have any neutral phase.
4. It occurs regularly every third year.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
— Multiple global weather models have forecasted a delayed emergence of La Niña — the periodic cooling of ocean surface temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
— The El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a climate phenomenon characterised by changes in sea temperatures along the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, coupled with fluctuations in the overlying atmosphere. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— It can alter and interfere with the global atmospheric circulation, which, in turn, influences the weather worldwide. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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— ENSO has three phases – warm (El Niño), cool (La Niña), and neutral. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— It occurs in irregular cycles of 2 to 7 years. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
— During the neutral phase, the eastern side of the Pacific Ocean (near the northwest coast of South America) is cooler than the western side (between the Philippines and Indonesia). This is due to the predominant wind patterns that blow from east to west, carrying warmer surface waters towards the Indonesian coastline. The somewhat cooler water from below rises to replace the displaced water.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 5
Consider the following industries:
1. Textile
2. Paper
3. Pharmaceuticals
4. Steel
5. Food and beverages
How many of the above industries require starch for their production?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Explanation
— The Green Revolution was primarily about wheat and rice. India has become self-sufficient, if not surplus, in these two cereal grains, thanks to high-yielding varieties developed by institutions such as the Mexico-based CIMMYT (International Maize and Wheat Improvement Centre) and the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) in New Delhi, led by scientists such as Norman Borlaug and M S Swaminathan.
— Maize, unlike rice and wheat, is not a very nutritious grain. Only around a fifth of India’s maize production is used for direct human consumption. An estimated 60% is used as feed for poultry birds and cattle. Households consume such maize indirectly through poultry, egg, or milk.
— 14-15% of India’s maize is used for industrial uses.
— Maize grains contain 68-72% starch and 1-3% additional simple carbohydrates (such as sucrose, glucose, and fructose).
— Starch is used in various industries, including textiles, paper, pharmaceuticals, food, and beverages.
— Maize evolved as a feedstock for ethanol, which is then blended with fuel.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 6
With reference to the Elephant Endotheliotropic Herpesviruses (EEHVs), consider the following statements:
1. These are double-stranded DNA herpesviruses which cause acute haemorrhaging in elephants.
2. Older elephants are particularly vulnerable to this disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
— According to a new report provided by the Kerala government, the population of juvenile elephants (aged ten years or under) has declined significantly over the last year.
— The report, titled ‘Elephant Population Estimation in Kerala – 2024’, was released on Tuesday (July 16). It is an annual survey of Kerala’s elephant population. It is part of a coordinated inter-state effort spanning Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu aimed at addressing the issue of escalating human-elephant conflict across state lines.
— EEHVs are a type of unique double-stranded DNA herpesvirus that causes acute haemorrhage in juvenile Asian and African elephants, with severe instances resulting in mortality within 24 hours of infection. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The disease has coexisted with elephants for millions of years, but young elephants are more vulnerable because they have lower EEHV-specific antibody levels than older elephants. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— Calves in large elephant herds benefit from shared immunity, which is achieved by exposure to several EEHV strains, allowing them to build antibodies to efficiently combat the virus.
— According to the paper, the size of a herd is determined by the quality of its habitat, with larger herds with calves preferring areas with a good mix of grassland, woods, and water sources.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 7
The National Quantum Mission will focus on developing:
1. Magnetometers
2. Atomic Clocks
3. Navigation
4. Design and synthesis of superconductors
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
— Last year, India launched the National Quantum Mission, making it one of the few countries with a specific initiative to harness the power of quantum technologies. These technologies, which take advantage of the unique features of the smallest particles of matter, have the potential to revolutionise some of our time’s most intractable challenges, such as clean energy and inexpensive healthcare.
— After several years of deliberation, India announced in 2023 the establishment of the National Quantum Mission to develop quantum-related scientific and technology capabilities.
— The mission focuses on four key domains: computing, communications, sensors, and materials.
— According to the new research, outside of the European Union, India has the most graduate students in quantum technology-related areas. These fields include biology, electronics, chemical engineering, statistics, and information and communication technologies.
— The National Quantum Mission will concentrate on the development of high-sensitivity magnetometers in atomic systems, as well as Atomic Clocks for precise time, communication, and navigation. It will also aid in the development and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors, innovative semiconductor architectures, and topological materials for the production of quantum devices. Single photon sources/detectors, as well as entangled photon sources, will be developed for quantum communications, sensing, and metrology applications.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 8
With reference to the PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India), consider the following statements:
1. The scheme seeks to develop schools to “showcase” the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020.
2. The scheme is for existing elementary, secondary, and senior secondary schools run by the central government only.
3. It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Explanation
— The Centre has stopped funding for the umbrella program for school education in three opposition-ruled states that have refused to implement its PM SHRI scheme.
— The Samagra Shiksha Scheme, for which funding has been withdrawn in West Bengal, Punjab, and Delhi, promotes the implementation of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
— The scheme was approved in 2022, aims to build 14,500 schools that would “showcase” the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and serve as “exemplars” for other schools in their region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 2022. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— The system applies to existing elementary, secondary, and senior secondary schools run by the central government, as well as state and local governments across the country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— The PM SHRI dashboard online now lists 10,077 schools, including 839 Kendriya Vidyalayas and 599 Navodaya Vidyalayas, both run by the Centre. The remaining 8,639 schools are managed by state and municipal governments.
— UP has the most PM SHRI schools (1,865) followed by Maharashtra (910) and Andhra Pradesh (900).
— PM SHRI schools are selected through the “challenge mode” — schools that meet certain minimum benchmarks (including a pucca building in good condition, barrier-free access ramps, at least one toilet each for boys and girls) can apply online.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 9
Bastille Day is celebrated with reference to:
(a) United States of America
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Russia
Explanation
— The French National Day is celebrated on July 14 each year, on the anniversary of the storming of the Bastille prison in Paris in 1789.
— The ancient régime, or the ‘old regime’, is the retrospective label given to the socio-political system in France that preceded the French Revolution.
— A series of crop failures and famines in the 1770s and 1780s pushed the peasantry to the brink — by 1788, even bread had become unaffordable for a vast majority of people.
— The king and nobility continued their extravagant lifestyles, with King Louis XVI and Queen Marie Antoinette viewed as symbols of injustice. These material conditions, combined with Enlightenment beliefs about democracy and equality, rendered the situation ripe for a revolution.
— On July 14, a massive armed mob began marching towards the Bastille, a 14th century fortress-prison in Paris that had become one of the monarchy’s most loathed emblems. Since the reign of Louis XIV, the Bastille has been used to imprison French political prisoners at the monarch’s request, without trial or a declared reason. The “palace of revenge” was described by philosopher Voltaire, who spent some time in the Bastille.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 10
With reference to the dynamics of India-Russia trade, consider the following statements:
1. India aims to bolster bilateral trade with Russia to $100 billion by 2030.
2. Russia has rapidly ascended to become India’s top oil supplier.
3. The balance of trade is in the favour of Russia.
4. India supports the yuan as a currency for settling international trade.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
— India plans to increase bilateral commerce with Moscow to $100 billion by 2030 as a strategic move to lower its increasing oil import cost and dependence on the expensive US dollar. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Russia has quickly risen to become India’s largest oil supplier, but Indian exports to Russia have suffered, resulting in a $57 billion trade deficit in bilateral trade totaling $66 billion in FY24. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
— Unlike India, China has embraced the export opportunities that have emerged in Russia as a result of severe Western sanctions and the exodus of a slew of Western corporations and banks from the war economy. China’s exports to Russia have expanded faster than Russian oil imports.
— Trade between the two countries is more balanced than the India-Russia trade, which has encouraged the usage of indigenous currency.
— Even while India wants to minimise its reliance on the US dollar, it does not promote the yuan as a currency for international trade due to ongoing border concerns with neighbouring China. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
— In July 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a circular permitting an additional arrangement for settling trade using the rupee.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 11
With reference to Article 109, consider the following statements:
1. Money Bill shall be introduced only in Lok Sabha and, upon passage, transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.
2. Rajya Sabha must revert within 14 days, but it is up to Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of its recommendations.
3. If the Bill is not returned by Rajya Sabha within the stipulated period, it is considered passed anyway.
4. In order for a Bill to be designated as a Money Bill, it must contain “only provisions dealing with all or any” of a specific list of subjects.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
— The Supreme Court has agreed to “take the call” on hearing petitions challenging the “Money Bill route” taken by the government to push through contentious legislation in Parliament.
— With the Union Budget scheduled for July 23, Senior Advocates Kapil Sibal, Abhishek Manu Singhvi, and Indira Jaising approached the Bench of Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud on Monday, seeking an urgent hearing in the matter.
— Under Article 109, a Money Bill shall be introduced only in Lok Sabha and, upon passage, transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its “recommendations”. Rajya Sabha must revert within 14 days, but it is up to Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of its recommendations. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
— If the Bill is not returned by Rajya Sabha within the stipulated period, it is considered passed anyway. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— To ensure this process is not abused, “Article 110” provides a strict definition of a Money Bill. In order for a Bill to be designated as a Money Bill, it must contain “only provisions dealing with all or any” of a specific list of subjects. These subjects include taxation, financial obligations of the Government of India, the Consolidated Fund (revenue received by the government through taxes and expenses incurred in the form of borrowings and loans) or Contingency Fund (money to meet unforeseen expenditure) of India, or “any matter incidental” to the matters listed in the Article. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 12
MANAS, recently seen in news is related to which of the following organisation?
(a) National Crime Records Bureau
(b) Narcotics Control Bureau
(c) National Human Rights Commission
(d) Intelligence Bureau
Explanation
— Union Home Minister Amit Shah will launch the first-ever national toll-free helpline along with an email on Thursday which will allow people to tip off the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) about the illegal narcotics business and related issues.
— The helpline 1933, named MANAS, will be rolled out during the seventh apex-level meeting of the Narco-Coordination Centre (NCORD) to be held in Delhi on July 18. Shah will chair the meeting which will be attended by officers from Central and State anti-narcotics agencies and departments, special bureaus, and the police.
— MANAS, which stands for Madak Padarth Nisedh Asuchna Kendra or Narcotics Prohibition Intelligence Centre, aims to establish a user-friendly platform for every citizen to conveniently report drug-related matters 24×7.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 13
‘Mashko Piro’, a tribe recently seen in news are found in:
(a) Amazon rainforest
(b) Sundaland
(c) Australasian rainforest
(d) Indian Ocean islands
Explanation
— Indigenous rights NGO Survival International has released rare pictures of the Mashco Piro tribespeople, one of the world’s 100-odd uncontacted tribes.
— The Mashko Piro are possibly the largest uncontacted tribe in the world. They live deep in the Amazon rainforest of southeastern Peru.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 14
Read the following lines and answer the question below:
She is widely remembered for her daring act of hoisting the Tricolour at the Gowalia Tank Maidan. She co-edited a newspaper called ‘Inquilab’ with Lohia. In 1965 she was awarded the Order of Lenin prize.
Who is ‘she’ referred to in the above lines?
(a) Sucheta Kriplani
(b) Matangini Hazra
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) None of the above
Explanation
— Aruna Asaf Ali got the distinction of unfurling the Tricolour at the Gowalia Tank meeting of the Quit India Movement in Bombay (Mumbai).
— She was proclaimed an offender by the police and her property was seized and later auctioned. But she evaded arrest and found mentorship and protection under Ram Manohar Lohia. Perhaps it was her long arduous underground struggle with Socialist leaders like Lohia and Jay Prakash Narayan that steered her towards socialism.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 15
With reference to Kadambini Ganguly, consider the following statements:
1. She was the first female medical practitioner in India.
2. It was due to her efforts that the first Age of Consent Act was passed by the British government in 1891.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
— Apart from being the first female medical practitioner in India, Kadambini Ganguly also lent her voice to the nationalist movement and it was due to her efforts that the first Age of Consent Act was passed by the British government in 1891. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
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