UPSC Essentials: Daily Subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 5)

QUESTION 1

Consider the following statements:

1. Starred questions are answered through written replies which are placed on the Table of the House.

2. Unstarred questions are answered orally on the floor of the House.

3. Short notice questions are in regard to matters of public importance.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements about the seventh schedule:

1. Parliament has the power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India enumerated in the State List.

2. State does not have the power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List III in the Seventh Schedule.

3. States have exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List I in the Seventh Schedule.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 

(d) 3 only

QUESTION 3

Who has launched the Deceleration on Digital Rights and Principles of the Digital Divide?

(a) Law Commission of India

(b) United Nations

(c) European Union

(d) Association of South East Nations

QUESTION 4

Hyderabad Deceleration was recently in the news. It was adopted for:

(a) Next Generation Administrative Reforms for bringing citizens and government closer was the focus of the Conference deliberations

(b) Local Self Governance

(c) Digital Rights

(d) Administrative Reform for building collaboration between the Union and the States.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements about Standing Committees:

1. They examine such Bills pertaining to the concerned Ministries/Departments as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, or the Speaker, Lok Sabha.

2. The functioning of the Standing Committee is governed by the President of India.

3. The term of office of the members of the Committees is two years.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

QUESTION 6

With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements:

1. These communities were notified as Scheduled Tribes as per provisions of Article 341(1) of the Indian Constitution.

2. The commission investigates and monitors the matters relating to Safeguards provided for Scheduled Tribes

3. The commissions recognises the symbiotic relationship between tribes and forests in their traditional wisdom regarding conservation of forests.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 3 only

QUESTION 7

The provision of “Welfare State” is mentioned in – 

(a) Fundamental Duties

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Directive Principles of State Policies

(d) Emergency Provisions

 QUESTION 8

Which of the following is/are condition(s) on which a member is disqualified?

1. If he holds the office of profit.

2. If he is of unsound mind.

3. If he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State.

4. If he is discharged solvent.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWERS TO MCQs

1. (b)

FYI:

— Questions are of three kinds, viz., starred, unstarred and short notice questions.

Starred Questions

— These are answered orally on the floor of the House and with reference to the reply given; members are entitled to ask supplementary questions.

Unstarred Questions

— These call for written replies which are placed on the Table of the House and no supplementary are asked in respect of such replies.

Short Notice Questions

— These may be put only in regard to matters of the public importance of an urgent character at shorter notice than provided for in the Rules of the two Houses and are answered orally as starred questions.

— The Rajya Sabha/Lok Sabha Secretariat gives at least five days’ notice to the Minister concerned to answer a question.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Source: (mpa.gov.in)

2. (b)

FYI:

— Article 246 of the Constitution mentions three lists in the Seventh Schedule — union, state, and concurrent list.

— Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List I in the Seventh Schedule (in this Constitution referred to as the Union List). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Parliament and the Legislature of any State have the power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List III in the Seventh Schedule (in this Constitution referred to as the Concurrent List). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Legislature of any State has exclusive power to make laws for such State or any part thereof with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List II in the Seventh Schedule (in this Constitution referred to as the State List).

— Parliament has the power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State notwithstanding that such matter is a matter enumerated in the State List. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Parliament can make laws in the State list in the following circumstances:

(a) Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the state list when the Proclamation of Emergency is in operation in a part or whole state.

(b) When legislatures of two or more States pass a resolution to the effect of the matters with respect to which Parliament has no power to make laws for the States except as provided in articles 249 and 250 should be regulated in such States by Parliament by law.

(c) For the implementation of International agreements or treaties with foreign affairs.

(d) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution.

— The union list makes no mention of “order”. It only mentions the “Deployment of any armed force of the Union or any other force subject to the control of the Union or any contingent or unit thereof in any State in aid of the civil power; powers, jurisdiction, privileges and liabilities of the members of such forces while on such deployment.”

— The state list mentions “public order” and “police (including railway and village police)”.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Other Source: (http://www.education.gov.in)

3. (c)

FYI:

— The European Union (EU) has launched the Declaration on Digital Rights and Principles for a secure, safe, and sustainable digital transformation that puts people at the centre, in line with EU core values and fundamental rights.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Source: (commission.europa.eu)

4. (a)

FYI:

— The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DAPRG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions and Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India in collaboration with the Government of Telangana organized the 24th National Conference on e-Governance at Hyderabad.

— As India celebrates its 75th year of Independence as Azaadi ka Amrit Mahotsav, the Prime Minister’s clarion call for the adoption of Next Generation Administrative Reforms for bringing citizens and government closer was the focus of the Conference deliberations.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Source: (pib.gov.in)

5. (b)

FYI:

— Each of the Standing Committees consists of not more than 31 members, 21 Members to be nominated by the Speaker from amongst the members of Lok Sabha and 10 members to be nominated by the Chairman, of Rajya Sabha from amongst the members of Rajya Sabha.

— A Minister is not nominated as a member of the Committee. If a member after nomination to the Committee is appointed a Minister, such member ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.

— The Chairpersons of Committees from Rajya Sabha are appointed by the Chairman, and the Chairpersons of Committees from Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker.

— The term of office of the members of the Committees does not exceed one year. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The functioning of the Standing Committee is governed by the general rules relating to Parliamentary Committees. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Functions

— To consider the Demands for Grants of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make a report on the same to the Houses. The report shall not suggest anything of the nature of cut motions.

— To examine such Bills pertaining to the concerned Ministries/Departments as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha as the case may be, and make reports thereon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— To consider annual reports of Ministries/Departments and make reports thereon.

— To consider National basic long-term policy documents presented to the House, if referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha as the case may be, and make reports thereon.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Source: (mpa.gov.in)

6. (c)

FYI:

— The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.

— The term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and each member is three years from the date of assumption of charge.

— The Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister, and the Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State and other Members have the rank of a Secretary to the Government of India.

— These communities were notified as Scheduled Tribes as per provisions of Article 342(1) of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Functions

— To investigate & Monitor matters relating to Safeguards provided for STs under the Constitution or under other laws or under Govt. Order, to evaluate the working of such Safeguards. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— To inquire into specific complaints relating to the Rights and Safeguards of STs.

— To participate and Advise in the Planning Process relating to the socio-economic development of STs, and to Evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any State.

— To submit the report to the President annually and  at such other times as the Commission may  deem  fit, upon/ working of Safeguards, Measures required for effective implementation of Programmers/ Schemes relating to Welfare and Socio-economic development of STs.

— To discharge such other functions in relation to STs as the President may, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, by rule specify.

— The Commission would also discharge the following other functions in relation to the protection, welfare, development, and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes.

— The Forest Right Act, of 2006 recognize the symbiotic relationship of the STs with the forests, reflected in their dependence on the forest as well as in their traditional wisdom regarding the conservation of the forests. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Source: (ncst.nic.in)

7. (c)

FYI:

— The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for India’s central and state governments which the governments must keep these principles in mind while framing laws and policies.

— The principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles stated in the Constitution of Ireland and also by the principles of Gandhian philosophy.

— The main aim of these principles is to create social and economic conditions under which all citizens can lead a good life.

— A welfare state is based on the principles of equality of opportunity and equitable distribution of wealth. It also focuses on the governmental responsibility for those who are unable to avail themselves of the minimal provisions of a good life.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: nios)

8. (d)

FYI:

— A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament:

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder.

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court.

(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent.

(d) if he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State.

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

— A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Source: (mpa.gov.in)

Previous Quizzes:

Polity and Governance (Week 2)

Polity and Governance (Week 3)

Polity and Governance (Week 4)

History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 2)

History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 3)

History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 4)

UPSC Weekly Quiz (Current Affairs)

UPSC Essentials: Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 2)

UPSC Essentials: Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 3)

UPSC Essentials: Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 4)

UPSC Essentials: Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 5)

Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 2)

Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 3)

Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 4)

International Relations (Week 2)

International Relations (Week 3)

International Relations (Week 4)

International Relations (Week 5)

Tomorrow’s Quiz: History, Culture and Social Issues 

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