UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on Attorney-General of India, UTs with legislature and more (Week 132)

QUESTION 1

The Attorney-General of India is eligible for

1. speak and take part in the proceedings of either House.

2. vote in Parliament

3. take part in Joint sitting of the Houses.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. Hence, 1 and 3 are correct.

— The Attorney General of India has the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings and can be a member of any parliamentary committee, though they cannot vote in either house. Hence, 2 is not correct.

— Currently, Senior Advocate R Venkataramani is the 16th Attorney General for India.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Union Territories (UTs) with legislature, consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the President.

2. There shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than fifteen per cent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Every Union territory shall be administered by the President acting, to such extent as he thinks fit, through an administrator to be appointed by him with such designation as he may specify

— There shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ten per cent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor in the exercise of his functions in relation to matters with respect to which the Legislative Assembly has power to make laws. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the President and other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 3

Consider the following:

1. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

2. To maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

3. To encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

4. To promote international peace and security.

How many of the above are included under the directive principles of state policies?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Article 51 of the Constitution of India provides for the promotion of international peace and security.

— The State shall endeavour to—

(a) promote international peace and security;

(b) maintain just and honourable relations between nations;

(c) foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peoples with one another; and

(d) encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

— To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(h).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 4

Who has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List?

(a) President

(b) Rajya Sabha independently

(c) Parliament

(d) Lok Sabha independently

Explanation

— Article 248 of the Constitution of India provides for the Residuary powers of legislation.

— The Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Centrally sponsored schemes (CSS), consider the following statements:

1. These are initiatives which are fully funded by the central government.

2. CSS is implemented by the central government.

3. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is a CSS.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Centrally sponsored schemes (CSS) are initiatives primarily funded by the central government, but they are implemented by state governments, with a defined sharing pattern for the funds between the two. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are funded jointly by the Centre and the States (e.g., 60:40 for ordinary states, 90:10 for NE and Himalayan states). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— These projects are intended for the national development and welfare sectors. Examples include Mahatma Gandhi’s National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and the Pradhan Mantri Gramme Sadak Yojana. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: sansad.in)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 127)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 131)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 131)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 131)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 131)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 131)

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