UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 2 to February 8, 2025

QUESTION 1

Which of the following correctly describes the services provided by NavIC?

(a) Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for civilian use and Precision Positioning Service (PPS) for military use 

(b) Global Positioning Service (GPS) for civilians and Encrypted Positioning Service for the military 

(c) Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for general use and Restricted Service (RS) for military use

(d) Restricted Service (RS) for civilians and Navigation Enhancement Service (NES) for military use 

EXPLANATION

The NavIC satellites provide two types of services – Standard Positioning Service which is for general and commercial use, and Restricted Service which is meant for the defence forces – over the Indian landmass and neighbouring regions.

According to A S Ganeshan, a former director of ISRO’s Satellite Navigation Program, the indigenous system provides positioning data “at all times with position accuracy better than 20 metres during all weather conditions, anywhere within India and a region extending about 1,500 km around India on dual frequencies in L5 and S band”. (‘Benefits of an Indian Navigation System’, Science and Culture, 2017)

Therefore, (c) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 2

Match the following satellite navigation systems with their respective countries/regions:

Navigation System	Country/Region
1. GPS	A. Russia
2. GLONASS	B. India
3. Galileo	C. United States
4. BeiDou	D. European Union
5. IRNSS (NavIC)	E. China
6. QZSS	F. Japan

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-F

(b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E, 5-D, 6-F

(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E, 6-F

(d) 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-C, 5-A, 6-F

EXPLANATION

A primary reason to develop an indigenous satellite navigation system like the IRNSS despite the existence of global systems such as the GPS (US), GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (Europe), Beidou (China), and QZSS (Japan), is the reliability that it offers in defence use.

Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 3

The term “H-1B visa” refers to:

(a) A visa issued for tourists and temporary visitors.

(b) A foreign worker visa for specialty occupations in the United States.

(c) A student visa issued to foreign nationals for academic programs.

(d) A visa for individuals seeking permanent residency in the United States.

EXPLANATION

Between October 2022 and September 2023, as many as 72% of the nearly 4 lakh visas issued by the US under its H-1B program (foreign worker visas for specialty jobs) went to Indian nationals. 

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 4

Which of the following wetlands in India is a key habitat for the Indus River Dolphin?

(a) Harike Wetlands

(b) Ranjit Sagar Wetlands

(c) Beas Conservation Reserve

(d) Kanjli Wetlands

EXPLANATION

The Beas Conservation Reserve, located along the Beas River, is a key habitat for the Indus River Dolphin, a species that is critically endangered.

Therefore, (c) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 5

Which of the following new Ramsar sites were announced by India in 2025, ahead of World Wetlands Day?

1. Udhwa Lake (Jharkhand)

2. Theerthangal (Tamil Nadu)

3. Sakkarakottai (Tamil Nadu)

4. Khecheopalri (Sikkim)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

EXPLANATION

February 2 is annually marked as World Wetlands Day to spread awareness about conserving one of the most critical ecosystems on the planet. This year, the theme was “Protecting Wetlands for Our Common Future”. Ahead of the day, India announced four new Ramsar sites under the global agreement Ramsar Convention on Wetlands – Udhwa Lake in Jharkhand, Theerthangal and Sakkarakottai in Tamil Nadu and Khecheopalri in Sikkim.

Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 6

Which sport is the new 3×15 scoring system related to?

a) Tennis

b) Badminton

c) Basketball

d) Volleyball

EXPLANATION

A new scoring system could be in place for badminton, as the Badminton World Federation has said this week that its chief decision-making body (BWF Council) has endorsed the 3×15 scoring system to replace the current 3×21 system. The decision was taken at the BWF Council’s meeting on November 9, 2024 in Kuala Lumpur.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 7

A committee headed by former ISRO chief K Radhakrishnan was constituted by the Ministry of Education in November 2022, to recommend measures to strengthen the accreditation system. 

What significant change in the accreditation process was recommended by the K. Radhakrishnan committee in 2022?

a) Transition to a 10-point grading system

b) Introduction of binary accreditation 

c) Decreased emphasis on peer team visits

d) Addition of a new assessment parameter for teaching quality

EXPLANATION

The CBI last week arrested ten people, including members and chairperson of a National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) inspection team and office-bearers of Koneru Lakshmaiah Education Foundation (KLEF), a deemed-to-be university in Andhra Pradesh, in a case of bribery for a favourable NAAC rating.

What changes have been proposed to the NAAC grading system?

The National Education Policy 2020 envisions that “in the long run, accreditation will become a binary process, as per the extant global practice”.

A committee headed by former ISRO chief K Radhakrishnan was constituted by the Ministry of Education in November 2022, to recommend measures to strengthen the accreditation system. It suggested that the present eight-point grading system transition into a binary accreditation system — the institution will be identified as ‘accredited’, ‘awaiting accreditation’, or ‘not accredited.’

It also suggests that accredited institutions be “encouraged” to “raise their bar…from ‘Level 1’ to ‘Level 4’ Institutions of National Excellence, and then to ‘Level-5’ i.e. Institutions of Global Excellence for Multi-Disciplinary Research and Education.”

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 8

The “M23 rebels,” recently seen in the news, are associated with which of the following countries?

(a) Sudan

(b) Democratic Republic of the Congo

(c) Central African Republic

(d) Ethiopia

EXPLANATION

Rwandan-backed M23 rebels in the Democratic Republic of Congo are seeking to advance south towards Bukavu, the capital of South Kivu province, in an attempt to expand their area of control in the country’s east after capturing the city of Goma. The latest fighting is part of a major escalation of a decades-old conflict over power, identity, and resources that has killed hundreds of thousands of people and displaced more than one million since its recent resurgence.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 9

Consider the following statements with reference to Extra Long Staple (ELS) cotton.

Statement 1: Cotton farmers in India have been reluctant to adopt Extra Long Staple (ELS) cotton.

Statement 2: ELS cotton requires less water and inputs compared to regular cotton, making it unsuitable for large-scale cultivation.

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.

(d) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.

EXPLANATION

Why is ELS cotton not grown in India?

For the 2024-25 season, the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of medium staple cotton was Rs 7,121 (per quintal) while that of long staple cotton was Rs 7,521.

Nonetheless, cotton farmers in India have thus far been reluctant to adopt ELS cotton. This is mainly due to lower than average per acre yields, experts say. While the medium staple variety yields between 10 and 12 quintals per acre, ELS cotton has a yield of only 7-8 quintals.

Additionally, farmers growing ELS cotton are often unable to market their premium produce at premium prices. “The market linkages necessary are not available easily,” said one trader.

Therefore, (c) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 10

Consider the following statements regarding Parole and Furlough:

1. Parole and furlough are both forms of conditional release granted by the judiciary.

2. When a prisoner is released on furlough, the sentence continues to run during the release period.

3. Parole is generally granted for short-term imprisonment in specific exigencies, whereas furlough is usually granted for long-term imprisonment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

EXPLANATION

Convicts of the Hashimpura massacre have moved the Delhi High Court against a Delhi prison rule about furloughs. The rule vests power to grant furlough with the court where the appeal against conviction is pending.

Generally, the power of granting furlough is exercised by the executive. 

What is the difference between parole and furlough?

Both furlough and parole stem from jail manuals and prison rule and are in the domain of the executive. Both are conditional releases, subject to good behavior in prison and to not committing specific offences.

In furlough, the sentence continues to run despite the convict being released from prison for a specified period of time. For example, if a person has been sentenced to 10 years’ imprisonment and is released on furlough for 30 days, in effect he will be in jail for 9 years 11 months and yet will be deemed to have completed the sentence.

When the convict is released on parole, the sentence is suspended and the quantum of sentence remains intact.

Paroles are granted in short-term imprisonment, to provide relief to prisoners in certain specified exigencies such as illness, sowing and harvesting of crops, and to pursue an appeal against conviction in the SC.

Furlough is usually granted in case of long-term imprisonment and after spending a certain period of time incarcerated. It is aimed to prevent solitude of prisoners, allow them to establish family and social ties, a way of motivation for maintaining good conduct, and to remain disciplined in prison.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 11

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s role in lawmaking under Article 200 of the Indian Constitution:

1. The Governor can withhold assent to a Bill and send it back to the Assembly for reconsideration only once.

2. If the Assembly passes the Bill again without any changes, the Governor is still empowered to withhold assent indefinitely.

3. The Governor can reserve any Bill for the consideration of the President at their discretion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

EXPLANATION

Governor’s role in lawmaking

The Constitution envisages the office of the Governor as an apolitical entity. Over the years, the SC in several rulings has limited the Governor’s exercise of the powers in a permissive manner. Broadly, the Governor is bound to act on the aid and advice of a state’s Council of Ministers. However, there are a few exceptions to this. For instance, in recommending the imposition of the President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution, and in granting assent to Bills under Article 200.

After a Bill has been passed by a state Assembly, it is presented to the Governor for her assent. 

Article 200 envisages three scenarios where the Governor can:

1. Give assent to the Bill, in which case it becomes state law.
2. Withhold assent to the Bill and send it back for reconsideration by the state Assembly.
3. Reserve the Bill for consideration by the President of India.

If the Governor withholds assent and sends the Bill back for reconsideration, the Assembly can amend the Bill or pass it again as is. When the particular Bill is presented to the Governor again, she “shall not withhold assent therefrom”, mandating the Bill’s passage, except in cases where the Bill, in the opinion of the Governor, could “derogate from the powers of the High Court.” In that case, the Bill shall be reserved for the President’s consideration.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 12

Consider the following statements regarding Potash:

1. Potash is primarily used in the production of fertilizers.

2. Sulphate of Potash (SOP) contains chloride, which makes it suitable for carbohydrate-type crops.

3. Muriate of Potash (MOP) is commonly used for crops such as wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

EXPLANATION

On Thursday (February 6), Punjab Mining Minister Barinder Kumar Goyal said the government will explore potash mining in Fazilka and Sri Muktsar Sahib districts, where surveys previously detected large mineral reserves in three mining blocks.

Surveys of the Geological Survey of India (GSI) have also identified reserves in parts of Rajasthan. These findings highlight the potential for potash mining in both states, reducing India’s dependence on imports and bolstering the domestic fertilizer industry. However, some concerns have been flagged. We explain.

What is potash?

Potash refers to potassium-bearing minerals that are primarily used in fertilisers. Over 90% of potash is used as fertilizer and it is one of the three primary agricultural nutrients (Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium or N-P-K). According to the official Indian Minerals Yearbook for 2021, “Potash can be used on all plants to boost plant health and nutrition as well as to increase crop yields. While all potash fertilizers contain potassium there are a number of different forms in which it exists.”

Among these forms is Sulphate of Potash (SOP), a premium potash fertilizer that is free of chloride (a compound considered harmful to plants). On the other hand, Muriate of Potash or MOP contains some chloride. While SOP is used primarily on high-value crops, usually leafy plants, fruits and vegetables, MOP is commonly used on carbohydrate-type crops, such as wheat.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 13

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The Arctic region is experiencing warming at a rate significantly higher than the global average.

Statement 2: The albedo effect reduces as sea ice melts, leading to greater absorption of solar radiation by exposed land and water.

In the context of the statements above, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.

(d) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.

EXPLANATION

Since 1979, the Arctic has warmed four times faster than the global average. This is an issue because the region acts as a refrigerator for the rest of the world — it helps cool the planet. If temperatures continue to soar at this rate, it can lead to severe global impacts including rising sea levels and disruption of weather patterns. 

Why did the north pole experience such high temperatures?

The current unusually mild temperatures in the region during the depths of the polar winter (it is from November to February) were due to a deep low-pressure system — a region where the atmospheric pressure is lower than that of surrounding locations — over Iceland. The system opened gates for the arrival of warmer air from lower latitudes, effectively bringing heat to the region.

Why has the Arctic warmed faster than the global average?

The global temperatures have increased by around 1.3 degrees Celsius compared to the 1850-1900 baseline. However, this rise in temperatures is not uniform across the planet. For instance, the Arctic has warmed 3.8 times faster than the global average since the late 1970s, according to a 2022 study.

There are multiple factors behind the Arctic’s rapid warming. One of the most prominent factors is the albedo effect or how much sunlight a surface reflects. Sea ice keeps temperatures down in the polar regions, as its bright, white surface reflects more sunlight back to space than liquid water. As the ice cover in the Arctic is melting, more land or water is getting exposed to the Sun and more heat is getting absorbed, leading to a rise in temperatures.

The lack of convection in higher latitudes such as the Arctic is another reason. Convection occurs when air close to the ground is heated by the warm surface of the Earth. In the tropics, where more sunlight can reach the surface compared to the Arctic, strong convection takes place, causing warm air to rise. This vertical mixing distributes heat throughout the atmosphere.

However, in the Arctic, due to weak convection, the extra warming from the greenhouse gases is not able to mix vertically and the heat remains concentrated near the surface.

Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Consider the following statements regarding FEAST software:

1. It is a software based on the Finite Element Method used for structural and heat transfer analysis.

2. It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION

FEAST- Finite Element Analysis of Structures is the structural and heat transfer analysis software based on finite element method realized by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre / Indian Space Research Organisation.

Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.

(source: feast.vssc.gov.in)

QUESTION 15

The term ‘Dunki Route’ is related to:

(a) A new railway corridor in India

(b) An illegal immigration method

(c) A trade route between India and Europe

(d) A defense strategy

EXPLANATION

A US military aircraft carrying 104 deported Indian nationals landed at Amritsar airport on 5th February 2025. According to the deportees, they spent between Rs 30 lakh and Rs 1 crore in expenses and agent fees in their efforts to reach the US, mostly through what is known as the “dunki route”.

“Dunki” or “donkey journey” refers to the long-winding, often dangerous routes that people across the world take to reach the places they want to immigrate to. These difficult journeys are undertaken due to a lack of requisite legal permits or financial resources. The American authorities have deported those who have taken this illegal route to reach America.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.

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