UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 13 to April 19, 2025

QUESTION 1

Consider the following statements about Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR):

1. India’s first prototype fast-breeder reactor will be developed in the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station, Gujarat.

2. The commissioning of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) will mark the final stage of India’s three-stage nuclear programme.

3. It is the first-of-its-kind nuclear reactor to use plutonium-based mixed oxide as fuel and liquid sodium as coolant.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— India’s first prototype fast-breeder reactor, in Tamil Nadu’s Kalpakkam, is likely to be commissioned next year, nearly two years after receiving approval from the nuclear regulator. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) will be commissioned as the second stage of India’s three-stage nuclear plan, which intends to recycle spent fuel and reduce the country’s radioactive waste inventory. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The PFBR being developed in Kalpakkam is the first of its kind nuclear reactor, using plutonium-based mixed oxide as fuel and liquid sodium for cooling. It will also use spent fuel from Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors, which are now India’s primary source of nuclear power. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— While the state-run Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) runs nuclear power plants in the country, the Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam (BHAVINI) is developing the PFBR in Kalpakkam.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following are the functions and powers of the United Nations Security Council?

1. to investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction

2. to recommend methods of adjusting such disputes or the terms of settlement

3. to take military action against an aggressor

4. to act as an independent entity in international politics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4 only

Explanation

— India has called out attempts to introduce new parameters such as religion and faith as the foundation for representation in a reformed UN Security Council, claiming that this contradicts the acknowledged premise of regional representation.

— India’s Permanent Representative to the UN, Ambassador P Harish, informed the Inter-Governmental discussions (IGN) conference on ‘Size of the Future Council and Cluster Discussion on Regional Representation’ that those who reject text-based discussions do not want progress on UNSC reforms.

— “Attempts to introduce new parameters, such as religion and faith, as the basis for representation in a reformed Council runs completely counter to regional representation, which has been the accepted basis for representation in the UN,” Harish said when he spoke in his country’s capacity.

— Under the United Nations Charter, the functions and powers of the Security Council are:

(i) to maintain international peace and security in accordance with the principles and purposes of the United Nations;

(ii) to investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction;

(iii) to recommend methods of adjusting such disputes or the terms of settlement;

(iv) to formulate plans for the establishment of a system to regulate armaments;

(v) to determine the existence of a threat to the peace or act of aggression and to recommend what action should be taken;

(vi) to call on Members to apply economic sanctions and other measures not involving the use of force to prevent or stop aggression;

(vii) to take military action against an aggressor;

(viii) to recommend the admission of new Members;

(ix) to exercise the trusteeship functions of the United Nations in “strategic areas”;

(x) to recommend to the General Assembly the appointment of the Secretary-General and, together with the Assembly, to elect the Judges of the International Court of Justice.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: main.un.org)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Aryabhata satellite, consider the following statements:

1. It was India’s first indigenously built satellite.

2. It was launched into space from the Kapustin Yar cosmodrome in 1975.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— In 1975, the Soviet rocket carrier Interkosmos successfully launched Aryabhata into space from the Kapustin Yar cosmodrome, marking the beginning of India’s satellite journey. Fifty years later, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has developed 131 spacecraft, 51 of which are currently in orbit. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Aryabhata, named after an ancient astronomer, was India’s first indigenously manufactured satellite, launched on April 19, 1975. Interestingly, the initial signals were received back to the Indian ground station in Andhra Pradesh’s Sriharikota, which is around 5,000 kilometres from the Soviet military rocket launch pad, only 30 minutes after the launch. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the rare earth elements (REEs), consider the following statements:

1. Nearly all REEs are more abundant on average in the Earth’s crust than silver and gold.

2. The mining process of REEs results in significant environmental damage.

3. These elements can harm human health and contaminate water sources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Rare Earth Elements or Rare Earth Metals are a set of 17 chemical elements in the periodic table — cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium (Eu), gadolinium (Gd), holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd), praseodymium (Pr), promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm), scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb), and yttrium (Y). All have similar chemical properties and appear silver-coloured.

— While almost all REEs are more prevalent in the Earth’s crust than silver, gold, or platinum, it is rare to discover concentrated and economically mineable quantities. China is the world leader in rare earth refining. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Ironically, even though REEs are used to construct electric vehicles and wind turbines as part of the “clean energy” movement, their mining process causes enormous environmental damage. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Rare earth ores, for example, contain arsenic and cadmium, which are permitted to circulate freely during the refining process. These elements can endanger human health and contaminate water supplies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— However, because of their distinctive magnetic and optical properties, REEs can be used in a variety of applications, including the production of phosphors, or luminescent substances, for digital displays and screens. REEs are increasingly being employed to create powerful magnets for use in the automotive industry, including power steering, electric windows, power seats, and audio speakers.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Adarsh Sanskrit village programme, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to teach the Sanskrit language to one village in each district.

2. The scheme will be implemented in all the hilly states and union territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Uttarakhand cabinet has authorised the Adarsh Sanskrit village scheme, which intends to teach the language to one village in each district of the hill state. The plan aims to promote Sanskrit, the state’s second official language, and follows other similar initiatives, such as cash incentives for girls and SC/ST kids who choose Sanskrit in school. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— On a trial basis, one hamlet from each district was chosen. Depending on the responses, the scheme will be implemented at the block level. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The thirteen villages are Bhogpur in Dehradun, Mukhem in Tehri, Kotgaon in Uttarkashi, Baiji in Rudraprayag, Dimmar in Chamoli, Goda in Pauri, Urg in Pithoragarh, Pandeykota in Almora, Seri in Bageshwar, Khark Karki in Champawat, Nurpur in Haridwar, Pandeygaon in Nainital, and Nagla Terai in Udham Singh Nagar.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the military exercise ‘Dustlik’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.

2. It aims to enhance joint training and facilitate the exchange of best practices in counter-terrorism operations within the sub-conventional domain.

3. The first edition of this exercise was held in 2015.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Pune will host the sixth iteration of the joint military exercise ‘Dustlik’ between India and Uzbekistan, which will take place from April 16 to 28 at the Foreign Training Node (FTN) in Aundh. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The exercise will concentrate on counter-terrorism operations in sub-conventional domains and will feature Army and Air Force personnel.

— Exercise Dustlik, which means friendship in Uzbek, is an annual event held alternately in India and Uzbekistan. The most recent event took place in Termez, Uzbekistan, and Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, in 2023.

— The exercise’s goal is to promote military cooperation and improve combined capabilities for conducting joint operations in a variety of situations and terrains. The two-week program emphasises high levels of physical fitness, joint planning, joint tactical training, and unique weaponry skills.

— Exercise Dustlik seeks to improve collaborative training and encourage the exchange of best practices in counter-terrorism operations in the subconventional realm. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The inaugural round of this exercise took place in Uzbekistan in 2019. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Consider the following statements:

1. This Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) set sail from Cape Town for the final leg of its journey to Goa as part of the second edition of the Navika Sagar Parikrama expedition.

2. Two women naval officers, Lieutenant Commander Roopa A and Lieutenant Commander Dilna K, embarked on a historic sailing expedition from Goa on October 2, 2024, to circumnavigate the globe without external assistance and solely relying on wind power.

3. When the voyage is completed, the officers will be the first from India to accomplish the feat in double-handed mode.

4. During the period, the vessel encountered three cyclones while going past Point Nemo, also known as the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility. They also navigated the dangerous Drake Passage before passing the Cape Horn.

The above mentioned statements refer to which Indian Naval Sailing Vessel?

(a) INSV Tarini

(b) INSV Mhadei

(c) INSV Talwar

(d) INSV Makar

Explanation

— The Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini sailed from Cape Town for the final phase of its journey to Goa as part of the second Navika Sagar Parikrama mission.

— On October 2, 2024, two female navy officers, Lieutenant Commander Roopa A and Lieutenant Commander Dilna K, set off on a historic sailing expedition from Goa to round the globe aboard INSV Tarini, with no external aid and depending entirely on wind power. The crew has travelled 17,500 nautical miles and will cover another 5,500 nautical miles on the last leg. The yacht is slated to arrive in Goa by the end of May.

— The officers will be the first from India to complete the voyage in double-handed fashion.

— During her port visit in Cape Town, INSV Tarini acted as a base for a variety of outreach and diplomatic initiatives. This visit also allowed for cultural interchange and highlighted the developing marine cooperation between India and South Africa.

— During the period, the vessel encountered three cyclones while going past Point Nemo, also known as the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility. They also navigated the dangerous Drake Passage before passing the Cape Horn.

— According to the statement, the crew participated in a number of interactive events aimed at promoting gender equality, women’s empowerment, and India’s capacity for indigenous boat building.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

The term ‘kamran line’ refers to:

(a) a boundary between a liquid and a solid exhibits a surface energy effect.

(b) a boundary that separates the outer mantle from the core of the earth surface.

(c) a boundary that separates the outer troposphere and inner stratosphere.

(d) a boundary that borders Earth’s atmosphere and the beginning of space.

Explanation

— Katy Perry and five other ladies travelled to space aboard a rocket launched by billionaire Jeff Bezos’ private enterprise, Blue Origin. It was the first time since 1963 that an all-female crew had visited space.

— The mission, which lasted around 11 minutes, involved the New Shepard rocket flying the women more than 100 kilometres above Earth, crossing the globally accepted border of space (known as the kármán line), and experiencing a few minutes of weightlessness before descending.

— The Kármán line is a threshold 100 kilometres above mean sea level that separates Earth’s atmosphere from the beginning of space.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Consider the following pairs with reference to the pass route:

1. Lipulekh pass – It connects Sikkim and the Tibet Autonomous Region (TAR)

2. Nathu La pass – It connects Uttarakhand and TAR

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) announced that the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, which has not taken place since 2020, will resume this year. This comes as a part of a larger rapprochement between India and China in recent months.

— There are two primary routes to reach Lake Mansarovar from India.

— Lipulekh Pass is located at an elevation of 5,115 metres on the boundary between Uttarakhand and TAR, near the Nepal trijunction. It is an ancient route connecting the Indian subcontinent and the Tibetan Plateau, used by both commerce and pilgrims. Hence, pair 1 is not correct.

— While the Lipulekh pass path is the most direct route from India to Mansarovar (the lake is around 50 km from the border), the topography makes the trek difficult. Currently, this path involves approximately 200 kilometres of strenuous walking. Before 2020, it has been in operation since 1981.

— The Nathu La pass, located on the border between Sikkim and TAR, is 4,310 metres high. It is one of two mountain passes in the region, the other being Jelep La, which has connected Sikkim and Tibet since ancient times. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

— The path from Nathu La to Mansarovar is substantially longer, covering over 1,500 kilometres. However, it is totally motorable, so pilgrims can travel all the way to the lake without walking. (They would only need to go 35-40 kilometres around Mount Kailash). This route became operational in 2015.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to Type 5 diabetes, consider the following statements:

1. It is a form of diabetes affecting lean and malnourished teenagers and young adults in low- and middle-income countries.

2. The disease causes pancreatic beta cells to function abnormally.

3. It is the most prevalent form of diabetes.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The International Diabetes Federation (IDF) has formally classified type 5 diabetes, which affects lean and undernourished young adults in low- and middle-income nations, as a unique form of the disease. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Dr. Nihal Thomas, professor of endocrinology at Christian Medical College in Vellore, is a member of the Type 5 Diabetes Working Group. He told The Indian Express that the illness affects aberrant pancreatic beta cell function, which results in insufficient insulin production. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— This differs from Type 2 diabetes, the most common type of the condition, in which the main issue is insulin resistance – while the pancreas continues to generate insulin, the body does not respond appropriately to the hormone. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Prof. Peter Schwarz, president of the IDF, introduced and supported the term ‘Type 5’ diabetes in January of this year. It was officially recognised on April 7 during the 75th World Diabetes Congress in Bangkok.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

With reference to the Bhagavad Gita and the Nāṭyaśāstra, recently added to UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register, consider the following statements:

1. The Bhagavad Gita is a Sanskrit scripture comprising 700 verses, organized into 18 chapters, and is embedded in the sixth book (Ashvamedhika Parva) of the epic Mahabharata.

2. The Nāṭyaśāstra outlines a comprehensive framework of principles related to nāṭya , abhinaya , rasa , bhāva , and saṅgīta.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— NATYASHASTRA: Traditionally attributed to the sage Bharata, Natyashastra is an ancient Sanskrit treatise on performing arts. Comprising 36,000 verses, the “Naṭyashastra embodies a comprehensive set of rules that define natya (drama), abhinaya (performance), rasa (aesthetic experience), bhava (emotion), sangita (music),” the UNESCO citation says.  Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— BHAGAVAD GITA: Traditionally attributed to the sage Vyasa, Bhagavad Gita is a Sanskrit scripture comprising 700 verses that are organised in 18 chapters, embedded in the sixth book (Bhishma Parva) of the epic poem Mahabharata. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Consider the following dynamic processes occurring on Earth’s surface:

1. Retreat of glaciers

2. Changes in vegetation and forest cover

3. Movements during earthquakes and volcanic activity

Which of the above processes can be studied by the NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) mission?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The long-awaited NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Satellite) mission, a first-of-its-kind collaboration between the space agencies of India and the US, may finally be launched in June.

— NISAR is meant to make extremely granular observations of the Earth at regular intervals. The satellite is powerful enough to capture changes as small as one centimetre in size during its repeated observations over the same terrain. It will therefore be able to study the dynamic processes happening on Earth’s surface, like retreat of glaciers, changes in vegetation and forest cover, and even the movements during earthquakes and volcanoes. Scientists expect this satellite to provide new insights into our understanding of processes like climate change or natural hazards.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS), consider the following statements:

1. An emissions trading scheme (ETS) or market is a regulatory tool to cut greenhouse gas emissions.

2. Due to one of its core features lends the name ‘cap-and-trade’ to emission markets.

3. Emissions trading has been in operation in Europe since 2005 and in China since 2021

4. The world’s first ETS pilot to control particulate pollution is in Warsaw, Poland.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— A new study on the world’s first-ever market for trading particulate emissions, which are tiny particles that can impact human health, revealed that employing the market mechanism helped reduce pollution by 20-30 per cent in an industrial cluster in Surat. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The study builds on the idea of emissions trading, which has been in operation in Europe since 2005 and in China since 2021, and has at times been criticised. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— An emissions trading scheme (ETS) or market is a regulatory tool to cut greenhouse gas emissions, while providing industries with financial incentives to comply with norms and to get them to invest in cleaner technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Under ETS, regulators set a cap or a limit on the total emissions load that can be released into the air. Instead of enforcement through fines or show-cause notices, industries are given emissions permits or allowances, which can be traded among them to meet compliance. This lends the name ‘cap-and-trade’ to emission markets. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Surat-ETS was introduced in 2019 across 342 highly polluting industries to control fine particulate pollution emitted due to the use of solid fuel sources, such as coal and lignite, and liquid sources such as diesel.

— It is the world’s first ETS pilot to control particulate pollution and India’s first for any pollutant. The scheme was designed and developed by the Gujarat Pollution Control Board (GPCB) along with researchers from Abdul Latif Jameel Poverty Action Lab (J-PAL), Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC) and Yale University.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Recently, seen in news, Justice Kurian Joseph committee is formed to:

(a) identify and address issues related to caste-based discrimination and violence in schools

(b) review and recommend measures to safeguard the rights of states, alleging that the Centre was gradually snatching away their rights

(c) investigate the possibility of Schedule Caste Status for Dalit Converts

(d) reform the process of competitive exams through the National Testing Agency (NTA)

Explanation

— Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Stalin on Tuesday announced the formation of a three-member committee led by a former Supreme Court judge, Justice Kurian Joseph to review and recommend measures to safeguard the rights of states, alleging that the Centre was gradually snatching away their rights.

— “To protect the rightful entitlements of the States and to enhance the relationship between the Union and state governments, a high-level committee has been formed,” Stalin announced in the state Assembly.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to WHO’s Draft Pandemic Treaty, which will be presented at the World Health Assembly on May 19, consider the following statements:

1. The treaty is founded on the “One Health” approach, which recognises that people’s health is closely connected to developments in the natural world and it asks countries to identify circumstances under which pathogens can jump from animals to humans, and take steps to reduce such risks.

2. The treaty is led by the United States of America and not supported by low and middle-income countries (LMIC) due to two central tenets — exchange of scientific information and equitable allocation of medical preventives and antidotes.

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Explanation

— At the height of the Covid pandemic in March 2021, more than 20 countries and international organisations issued a call for a treaty to protect the world from future outbreaks. In December that year, WHO members established the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body to draft an international instrument. Despite the toll taken by the pandemic across the world, countries were not on the same page over the details of the treaty’s two central tenets — exchange of scientific information and equitable allocation of medical preventives and antidotes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The treaty sends a strong message that the WHO has overcome the setback caused by the US’s withdrawal from the global health body

— The treaty is founded on the “One Health” approach, which recognises that people’s health is closely connected to developments in the natural world. It asks countries to identify circumstances under which pathogens can jump from animals to humans, and take steps to reduce such risks. Such information, shared swiftly, can prevent and contain outbreaks. If approved by the World Health Assembly, the pact will be the first international covenant against spillover infections. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 06 to April 12, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 30 to April 05, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 23 to March 29, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 16 to March 22, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 09 to March 15, 2025

Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.

Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.