UPSC Key: Special Intensive Revision in Bihar, Olive Ridley turtles, and INS Tamal

Preliminary Examination: Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues

Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation

What’s the ongoing story: As per the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls ordered by the Election Commission ahead of the Bihar Assembly polls, residents of the state such as Manjhi whose names did not figure in the 2003 electoral rolls must provide one of 11 documents notified by the EC to prove their “citizenship”.

Key Points to Ponder:

• What is the Special Intensive Revision?

• What is the purpose of conducting the Special Intensive Revision?

• How is it different from the National Register of Citizens (NRC)?

• What is the function of the Booth Level Officers (BLOs)?

• How is SIR being carried out in Bihar?

• What is the constitutional backing for conducting SIR?

• Who conducts elections at the state level? What is the role of the state election commission?

• What are the concerns related to SIR?

• Has the Election Commission conducted  Intensive revisions of the electoral roll before?

• Understand the role of the Election Commission, the process of conducting elections at the national and state levels

Key Takeaways:

• Bihar’s Chief Electoral Officer Vinod Gunjiyal told The Indian Express: “We have sent the new electoral forms to 82% of the BLOs. They have distributed about 72% of the forms (reaching about 5.61 crore of the over 7.8 crore voters). About 3% of the forms have been uploaded on the EC site.” Given that the deadline is less than a month away, that frames the immensity — and what many call impossibility — of the task ahead.

• As per the instructions issued by the EC on June 24, just four days before it rolled out the process on the ground, those who were on the electoral rolls in 2003 (when the last such Special Intensive Revision was done) can use the relevant extract from it as proof, while children of those on the 2003 rolls can use their parents’ electoral roll extract. That means that all voters 40 and younger (who would not have been 18 in 2003) will have to provide additional documents.

• Only those who complete the formalities will be included in the draft electoral roll to be published on August 1, with just over a month to go for the Assembly polls.

• The nearly 1 lakh booth level officers (BLOs) and BLO supervisors carrying out the Election Commission’s (EC’s) “special intensive revision” of Bihar’s electoral rolls will get Rs 6,000 each as an honorarium, according to an EC instruction issued on Thursday.

Do You Know:

• This “special intensive revision” of rolls will eventually cover all states and Union Territories, the ECI has said. The process in Bihar, where Assembly elections are due before November, began on Wednesday (June 25), and will end with the publication of the final electoral roll on September 30.

• Article 324(1) of the Constitution gives the ECI the power of “superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of” elections to Parliament and state legislatures.

• Under Section 21(3) of The Representation of the People Act, 1950, the ECI “may at any time…  direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency in such manner as it may think fit”.

• The Registration of Electors’ Rules, 1960, says the revision of rolls can be carried out “either intensively or summarily or partly intensively and partly summarily, as the [ECI] may direct”. In an intensive revision, the electoral roll is prepared afresh; in a summary revision, the roll is amended.

• Special summary revisions take place every year, and the electoral roll is updated before each Lok Sabha and state Assembly election. Intensive revisions have been carried out in 1952-56, 1957, 1961, 1965, 1966, 1983-84, 1987-89, 1992, 1993, 1995, 2002, 2003 and 2004.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍Yogendra Yadav writes on Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls: An attack on the right to vote

📍With months left for Bihar elections, why Election Commission has asked for electoral rolls to be revised

Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme:

(1) Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2021)

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.

2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lai contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.

3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme:

To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (UPSC CSE 2017)

Delhi Govt says pause fuel ban on end-of-life vehicles, cites tech issues, ‘public outcry’

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues

Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation

General Studies-III: Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment

What’s the ongoing story: Citing “critical operational and infrastructural challenges”, the Delhi government has asked the Centre’s Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) to put the fuel ban on end-of-life vehicles “on hold with immediate effect”.

Key Points to Ponder:

• What is the role and function of CAQM?

• What are the reasons for banning vehicles older than 10 years in Delhi NCR?

• What is the contribution of vehicular emissions to air pollution?

• What are the causes of air pollution in Delhi?

• What are the steps taken by the government to curb air pollution?

• Know about the Court rulings related to air pollution

Key Takeaways:

• The order to stop fuel supply to such vehicles — 10 years or older for diesel vehicles and 15 years or older for petrol vehicles – in the Capital came into effect on July 1.

• While 80 vehicles were seized and 98 issued notices on the first day, seven were seized and 78 issued notices on the second day. However, no vehicles were impounded on Thursday —the third day.

• The ‘end-of-life vehicles’ are flagged by Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) cameras installed at fuel stations, which scan number plates and match the data against the government’s Vahan portal to check for those without a valid Pollution Under Control Certificate (PUCC) or those deregistered as ‘end-of-life’.

• In 2018, the Supreme Court had banned diesel vehicles older than 10 years and petrol vehicles older than 15 years in Delhi.

Do You Know:

• An emission inventory, usually prepared for a particular year, quantifies emissions from different sources for a city or region for that year.

• The 2021 draft report was prepared by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). It was released in November 2024. The Delhi government had tasked TERI with the task as part of a project to identify sources of pollution in real-time.

• Of the six air pollutants that the draft report lists, vehicles are the largest contributors to three. Vehicles are the largest emitters of PM2.5 in Delhi, making up around 47% or 9.6 kt/year (kilotonnes per year) of the total estimated PM2.5 emission of 20.32 kt/year. This was followed by road dust (20%, 4.09 kt/year of PM2.5).

• Vehicles are also the largest emitters of nitrogen oxides (Nox), contributing 78% or 119.6 kt/year to the estimated Nox load of 153.53 kt/year, and non-methane volatile organic compounds (NMVOCs), contributing around 49% (88.02 kt/year) of the total load of 180.52 kt/year.

• Among vehicles, two-wheelers are the largest source of PM2.5, PM10, sulphur dioxide, and carbon monoxide. Three-wheelers are the largest source of VOCs, while buses have been identified as the largest source of Nox.

• In 2021, the Commission for Air Quality for the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act (CAQM Act) was enacted, which exclusively deals with the management of pollution in the National Capital Region and its adjoining areas in Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. The Act established CAQM as a statutory body with the power to take measures and issue directions to improve and protect air quality in the region.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍Why air pollution should be an urgent national priority

📍What are the worst polluters in Delhi NCR? Here’s what a TERI report says

UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme:

(2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2022)

1. The 24-hour mean of should not exceed and annual mean of  should not exceed

2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.

3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream

4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

EXPRESS NETWORK

Ministry defers forest land nod for Puri airport, cites concerns over Olive Ridley turtles, migratory birds

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: General issues on Environmental Ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialisation

Mains Examination: General Studies-III: Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment

What’s the ongoing story: The Environment Ministry’s Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) has deferred its clearance for the proposed international airport in Odisha’s Puri, citing its regional office’s concerns about potential harm to Olive Ridley turtles, Irrawaddy dolphins and migratory birds, and the impact of the loss of 13,000 trees that protect the coastline from cyclones.

Key Points to Ponder:

• What is the conservation status of Olive Ridley turtles?

• What is the role and purpose of the Forest Advisory Committee (FAC)?

• Know about the Chilika Lake, Balukhand wildlife sanctuary, and the Irrawaddy dolphins

• What is the Central Asian Flyway?

• What are the flyways used by the migratory birds?

• What is the significance of migratory birds for the ecosystem?

• What is the process of clearing an environment-sensitive project?

• What is the role and function of the Wildlife Institute of India (WII)?

Key Takeaways:

• The FAC, which scrutinises proposals seeking forest land for large projects, asked the Odisha government to take a precautionary approach and refer the matter to the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).

• The Shree Jagannath International Airport airport, cleared by the Union Aviation Ministry on May 5, is proposed to come up on around 471 hectares of land in Puri district’s Sipasarubali. The state government has sought approval for the use of 27.88 hectares of forest land for the project, which will cost an estimated `5,631 crore.

• The regional office raised concerns that cutting the 13,000 trees — mostly casuarina, cashew, acacia and noni — would remove a natural shield against cyclones in Puri. The FAC directed the Odisha government to justify the felling and submit a mitigation plan for “climate eventualities”. Odisha is a particularly cyclone-prone state.

• In a detailed site inspection report, the regional office also raised potential risks to not only turtle nesting sites in Brahmagiri forest division, adjoining the project site, but also lakhs of migratory birds that visit the Chilika estuarine lake. It flagged the potential of bird hits on airplanes.

• “The Chilika (satpada) lake boundary is at a distance of approximately 10-11 km from the proposed area. The Olive Ridley nesting site at Balukhand wildlife sanctuary is at a distance of 2.3 km from the proposed airport site, and it is also contiguous to the sea and beach adjacent to the site”, the inspection report stated.

• In response to concerns raised by the ministry on turtles, the state said that a site-specific wildlife conservation plan could be formulated, which would include detailed mitigation measures. On concerns over dolphins, the state said that the Zoological Survey of India’s regional office in Gopalpur was conducting a study.

• On concerns about the project’s impact on the flyway, or routes of migratory birds, the Odisha government said flights from eastern to southern cities already operate in the same airspace.

• The Central Asian Flyway is one among the world’s nine major flyways or migration routes. It is used by lakhs of birds, especially waterbirds. The flyway links the northernmost breeding grounds in Siberia, Russia to South Asia and West Asia. India is a critical stopover site for these birds.

Do You Know:

• Olive ridley turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea) are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles in the world. They get their name from the olive green colour of their heart-shaped shell, and inhabit warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.

• Olive ridleys can grow about two feet in length, and 50 kg in weight. Scientists do not know exactly how long they live, but like other sea turtles, Olive ridleys are likely long-lived — they reach maturity around 14 years of age.

• These marine reptiles are best known for their unique mass nesting — also called arribada, Spanish for “arrival” — during which thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.

• While solitary nesting by Olive ridleys is known to take place in approximately 40 countries worldwide, arribada nesting occurs on only a few beaches. The coast of Odisha (where Rushikulya and Gahirmatha rookeries are situated) is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica.

• The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) is a statutory body under the provisions of section-3 of the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. The role of the FAC is recommendatory in nature so far as diversion of forest land for the purpose of non-forestry use, including mining, is concerned.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍Why record number of Olive Ridleys came to nest in Odisha this year

📍422 Indian wetlands and grasslands on list of Central Asian Flyway sites, 19 from Gujarat

Prelims Question Covering similar theme:

(3) Consider the following statements about Olive Ridleys:

1. They are carnivorous

2. It is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List

3. They practise mass nesting called Arribada

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

EXPLAINED

Tamal, the last imported warship

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance

Mains Examination: General Studies-III: Security challenges and their management in border areas – linkages of organized crime with terrorism

What’s the ongoing story: With the commissioning of INS Tamal at the Yantar Shipyard in Kaliningrad, Russia, on Tuesday (July 1), the Indian Navy has likely inducted its last foreign-built warship.

Key Points to Ponder:

• Know about the Talwar-class frigate

• How many foreign-built warship is currently commissioned in India?

• Know about the features of INS Tamal, BrahMos Missile, Akash medium range surface to air missile, S-400 Triumf, Armoured recovery vehicles (ARV), and electronic warfare (EW) system

• What is anti-submarine warfare (ASW)?

• What are the steps taken by India for the indigenous development of warships?

• What is the role of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?

Key Takeaways:

• This is a major milestone for the Navy, which has, over the years, progressively indigenised shipbuilding, increasing bit by bit the indigenous content in warships, as well as designing them in India.

• INS Tamal is the eighth Talwar-class frigate — these are improved versions of the Krivak III-class frigates — built by Russia for the Indian Navy as a part of Project 1135.6.

• It is also the second of four additional follow-on ships of the class that were ordered in 2018. The first, INS Tushil, was commissioned in Kaliningrad in December last year. The final two, Triput and Tavasya, are being built in India by the Goa Shipyard Limited with transfer of technology and design assistance from Russia. Triput, which was launched into sea last July and is expected to be commissioned in 2026, will be India’s first indigenously built Talwar-class frigate.

• INS Tamal is a multirole frigate with a displacement of 4,035 long tonnes (1 long tonne = 1,016 kg) at full load, a length of 124.8 m, and a beam (width at its widest point) of 15.2 m. It has a maximum speed of 30 knots (56 km/h), and a range of upto 4,850 nautical miles (8,980 km). The ship will be manned by a crew of 250 sailors and 26 officers.

• INS Tamal carries two kinds of anti-aircraft missiles — 24 vertically-launched Shtil surface-to-air missiles with a range of upto 70 km, and eight short-range Igla missiles. At close range, incoming aircraft and missiles can also be fended off by the ship’s two AK-630s: fully-automated 30 mm rotary cannons that can fire more than 5,000 rounds per minute.

• INS Tamal’s anti-ship/ land attack capabilities are centred around the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. The ship carries a complement of eight such missiles which boast an operational range in the hundreds of kilometres, and can fly at speeds of upto Mach 3 (3,700 km/h).

• INS Ajay, a small patrol vessel commissioned in 1960, was the first indigenously-built ship in India.

• Today, the majority of the Navy’s warships are built indigenously, using more than 75% indigenous components. Several Indian shipyards, both public-sector and privately held, build ships for the Navy.

Do You Know:

• The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) Thursday cleared a series of big-ticket procurements worth Rs 1.05 lakh crore for the Armed Forces — which includes armoured recovery vehicles (ARV), electronic warfare (EW) system, integrated common inventory management system for the tri-services and surface to air missiles.

• The DAC is the top body for clearing major capital acquisitions for defence. The Ministry in a statement Thursday said these procurements will provide higher mobility, effective air defence, better supply chain management and augment the operational preparedness of the Armed Forces.

S-400 Triumf surface-to-air missile. (Source: wikimedia commons)

• The clearance to procure more surface to air missiles is likely based on India’s stellar performance during military hostilities with Pakistan following Operation Sindoor of surface to air missile systems such as the indigenously-made Akash medium range surface to air missile and S-400 Triumf surface-to-air missile system.

• Similarly, a Common Inventory Management System for the tri-services would improve cost efficiency of commonly used systems by the three services and provide pan-service visibility in terms of availability of weapon systems, allowing balancing of resources based on the theatre that is active.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍Surface to air missiles, armoured recovery vehicles: MoD clears Rs 1 lakh crore purchases

📍Govt to boost production of Made-in-India merchant vessels, cut reliance on foreign ships

Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme:

(4) Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2023)

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket powered only in the initial phase of flight.

2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why the US celebrates its Independence Day on July 4

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: History of India and Indian National Movement

Mains Examination: General Studies-I: History of the world will include events from the 18th century such as industrial revolution, world wars, redrawal of national boundaries, colonisation, decolonization, political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism etc.— their forms and effect on the society.

What’s the ongoing story: The United States is celebrating its 249th Independence Day on Friday, July 4. This was the day in which the country’s founding fathers formally signed the Declaration of Independence, officially ending British rule over the colonies. Here’s a brief history.

Key Points to Ponder:

• What was the American War of Independence?

• Understand the establishment of British colonies in America

• Learn about the American Civil War

• What was the role of the Seven Years’ War in America’s independence?

• Know about the following legislations: Sugar Act (1764), the Tea Act (1773) and the Intolerable Acts (1774)

• How did these legislation lead to the American War of Independence?

• What was the Boston Tea Party?

• What was the role of France, Spain, and the Dutch Republic in America’s independence?

Key Takeaways:

• More than 150 years after the first permanent British colonies emerged in North America, the colonists had grown increasingly frustrated with the Crown.

• With the 13 original colonies having no representation in the British Parliament in London, the 1760s and early 1770s saw the passage of a series of laws which imposed high taxes and curtailed colonists’ activities.

• Legislations such as the Sugar Act (1764), the Tea Act (1773) and the Intolerable Acts (1774) were seen by Americans as excessive British interference in their lives. With the Enlightenment giving a rise to ideas of freedom and equality, the situation was ripe for an uprising.

• The so-called Boston Tea Party began a resistance movement across the colonies against the oppressive tea tax — and the British Empire as a whole. The colonists claimed that Britain had no right to tax the colonies without giving them representation in the British Parliament.

• To decide further course of action, the 13 colonies came together to form the Continental Congress. The Congress initially tried to enforce a boycott of British goods, and meet King George III to negotiate better terms. But their attempts were in vain.

• This war went on till 1783 when Britain formally recognised American independence after its military defeat. The American victory, in no small part, was made possible due to the support of Britain’s European rivals — namely France, Spain, and the Dutch Republic.

• Years before 1783, while fighting still raged on, the Continental Congress declared American independence from British rule.

• On July 2, 1776, 12 of the 13 member-states of the Congress “unanimously” observed that the colonies “are, and of right ought to be, free and independent states.”

• As John Adams, who later became the second President of the US, noted: “The second day of July 1776, will be the most memorable epoch in the history of America. I am apt to believe that it will be celebrated by succeeding generations as the great anniversary festival.”

• He was off by two days. The formal document solemnising the colonies’ independence — the Declaration of Independence — was signed on July 4, the day that is still observed in the US as Independence Day.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍US Independence Day Live Updates: Ahead of 4th of July, Trump kicks off ‘big, big celebration’ for America’s 250th birthday

UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme:

The American Revolution was an economic revolt against mercantilism. Substantiate.

 

ECONOMY

Chemical exports: NITI for incentives & upgrades to port infra, clusters

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Economic and Social Development – Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.

Mains Examination: General Studies-III: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilisation, of resources, growth, development and employment.

What’s the ongoing story: NITI Aayog, the government’s apex public policy think tank, has proposed a series of measures to nearly double India’s $44 billion in annual chemical exports by 2030, noting that limited domestic demand remains a key barrier to faster growth in the sector.

Key Points to Ponder:

• What is a trade deficit?

• What are the Petroleum, Chemicals, and Petrochemicals Investment Regions (PCPIRs) in India?

• What is the role of resilient port infrastructure in India’s exports?

• What are the steps taken by the government to build port infrastructure?

• What do you understand by the high-demand specialty chemicals?

• What are the measures taken by the government to enhance the efficiency of the logistics sector?

Key Takeaways:

• The measures outlined in a report released on Thursday include developing new and existing production clusters to enable scale, improving port infrastructure for better logistics and storage, and introducing a sales-linked incentive scheme to localise production and boost exports of critical chemicals.

• In 2023, India ran a trade deficit of $31 billion in chemicals, and accounted for a share of 3.5 per cent in global value chains (GVCs) – against China’s 23 per cent – according to the report. The domestic market was valued at $220 billion in 2023, and the government and industry hope to increase that to $1 trillion by 2040.

• The report said India could double its share in GVCs to 5-6 per cent by 2030, largely by shifting from bulk chemicals to high-demand specialty chemicals. Adequate policy interventions can also raise exports by 35-40 billion in 2030 from $44 billion in 2023, it said.

• Towards that end, the report has proposed a sales-linked incentive scheme packaged as an operational expenditure (opex) subsidy to expand capacities. The subsidy will be aimed at reducing heavy reliance on specific countries for critical chemical imports and at boosting exports.

• The report also called for revamping existing cluster-based Petroleum, Chemicals and Petrochemicals Investment Regions (PCPIRs) – namely Dahej, Paradeep, and Vizag. The Paradeep and Vizag PCPIRs are currently far from completion.

• It also recommended setting up a Chemical Committee to identify and address infrastructure gaps in port-based chemical trade, alongside developing eight high-potential clusters spanning 14 major and 12 minor ports across India.

Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme:

The Gati-Shakti Yojana needs meticulous coordination between the government and the private sector to achieve the goal of connectivity. Discuss. (UPSC CSE 2022)

ALSO IN NEWS
In Ghana, PM Modi says post-World War II global order changing fast, calls for ‘credible’ reforms to governance	India and Ghana elevated their bilateral relationship to a “comprehensive partnership” on Wednesday as Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Ghanaian President John Mahama met in Accra. The two leaders decided to double bilateral trade in five years and increase cooperation in areas such as defence and healthcare.
Quad comes together to create supply chains for critical minerals: Can it counter China?	In a direct reference to China, they said that “reliance on any one country for processing and refining critical minerals and derivative goods production exposes our industries to economic coercion, price manipulation, and supply chain disruptions, which further harms our economic and national security”.

 

PRELIMS ANSWER KEY

1. (b)    2. (b)     3. (b)     4. (d)

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