UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 15 to September 21, 2024

1. These were the first generation of hand-held mobile communication devices.

2. These are receive-only devices to which small messages, not longer than a sentence, could be sent.

3. Messages to pagers are carried over infrared waves.

4. Pager devices can be traced or tracked.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— A day after the pager explosions in Lebanon, that killed nine people and injured nearly 3,000, the mechanism used to simultaneously detonate thousands of small devices operating on an outdated technology continued to remain a mystery.

— The most plausible explanation is that these devices were implanted with small amounts of deadly explosives before being sold, and that these explosives could be triggered remotely from a distance.

— Pagers were the first generation of hand-held mobile communication devices, extremely limited in functionality compared to mobile phones that emerged years later. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— These were receive-only devices capable of sending tiny messages of no more than a sentence. Pagers have no way of sending messages back. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Pagers, which first appeared in the 1950s, gained popularity in Western countries during the 1980s and 1990s. They only existed in India from the mid-1990s to the early 2000s.

— Pager messages are transmitted by radio waves. So, basically, a pager is a little radio receiver. Messages are messages delivered across a large region by a network of radio transmitters using certain radio frequencies. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Every pager has an associated number, just like a phone number. Messages that are combined with this number can be received only by the specific pager that is meant to receive it. Other pagers can sense the signal but cannot decode to read it.

— Pagers, like the household radio, cannot be traced or tracked because they can only receive messages over radio frequencies. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Starlink, consider the following statements:

1. It is a project by NASA in collaboration with the European Space Agency (ESA).

2. The project aims to provide high-speed internet access to anywhere on the planet using a constellation of thousands of satellites.

3. The satellites in Starlink will orbit the Earth at a high altitude of about 35000 kilometres.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Elon Musk’s Starlink satellites are impeding the work of astronomers, a study published in the journal Astronomy & Astrophysics found.

— Currently, the Starlink “constellation” comprises more than 6,300 working satellites orbiting Earth at an altitude of around 550 km. These satellites deliver high-speed internet to places which otherwise would not have access to it.

— Starlink is a project by SpaceX, the company founded by Elon Musk, to provide high-speed internet access to anywhere on the planet using a constellation of thousands of satellites. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The satellites are launched in batches of 60 and orbit the Earth at a low altitude of about 550 kilometres. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Starlink aims to offer broadband service that is faster, cheaper, and more reliable than existing options, especially in rural and remote areas where connectivity is limited or non-existent. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Working of Starlink

— Unlike traditional satellite internet, which is based on a single geostationary satellite orbiting over 35,000 km above the planet, Starlink satellites travel much closer to the surface, at approximately 550 km, lowering latency and increasing bandwidth. Each satellite includes four phased array antennas and two parabolic antennas to boost capacity.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the White Revolution 2.0, consider the following statements:

1. The idea of White Revolution 2.0 revolves around cooperative societies.

2. Financial assistance will be provided to set up National-level milk procurement systems.

3. Under the scheme, there will be no training and capacity-building facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Amit Shah, Union Minister of Home and Cooperation, has revealed preparations for a “White Revolution 2.0”. Operation Flood was launched in 1970 which ushered in the White Revolution and changed India’s dairy sector.

— The concept of White Revolution 2.0 centres on cooperative societies, which were also the foundation of Operation Flood five decades ago. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to the Ministry of Cooperation, White Revolution 2.0 aims to improve milk procurement for dairy cooperatives by 50% over the next five years by giving market access to farmers in underserved areas and expanding their participation of the organised sector.

— In the states of Gujarat, Kerala, and Sikkim, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, more than 70% of villages are covered by dairy cooperatives. In the states of Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Madhya Pradesh, and the UT of Jammu & Kashmir, however, coverage is only 10-20%. And in West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, and the smaller states of the Northeast, less than 10% of villages are covered.

— The bulk of the funding for White Revolution 2.0 will come through the National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD) 2.0, a new central sector scheme under the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.

— Under the scheme, financial assistance will be provided to set up village-level milk procurement systems, chilling facilities, and training and capacity-building. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

— India is the world’s top milk producer, with production having reached 230.58 million tonnes during 2022-23. In 1951-52, the country produced just 17 million tonnes of milk.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP), consider the following pairs:

Award	Category
Vigyan Ratna (VR) award	distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology.
Vigyan Shri (VS) award	lifetime achievements & contributions made in any field of science and technology.
Vigyan Yuva- Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award	young scientists up to the age of 45

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Explanation

— Twenty-six Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) award winners had asked the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to Prime Minister Ajay Kumar Sood whether the recommendations of the panel tasked with recommending Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) awardees had been accepted in their entirety or had been revised.

— According to an official release issued in September 2023, the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskars (RVP) awards were established to “recognise notable and inspiring contributions made by scientists, technologists, and innovators individually or in teams in various fields of science, technology, and technology-led innovation”.

— The awards, described in the release as “one of the highest recognitions in the field of science, technology, and innovation in India”, have been instituted in four categories:

(i) Vigyan Ratna (VR) for lifetime achievement; Hence, pair 1 is not correct.

(ii) Vigyan Shri (VS) for “distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology”; Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

(iii) Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award for young scientists up to the age of 45, which has replaced the SSB award; and Hence, pair 3 is correct.

(iv) Vigyan Team (VT) for a collaboration among three or more scientists, researchers, or innovators.

— These inaugural awards cover 13 domains: physics, chemistry, biological sciences, mathematics & computer science, earth science, medicine, engineering sciences, agricultural science, environmental science, technology and innovation, atomic energy, space science and technology, and “others”.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

At present, the elections to which of the following legislative assemblies are conducted along with the Lok Sabha elections?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Assam

3. Odisha

4. Sikkim

5. Manipur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

— The Union Cabinet has accepted the recommendations of the High Level Committee on One Nation, One Election, which outlined a plan to hold simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha, state assemblies, and, eventually, urban and rural local governments.

— According to the roadmap outlined by the group chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind, simultaneous elections will necessitate 18 revisions to existing legislation, including 15 to the Constitution.

— Up until about 1967, Lok Sabha and Assembly elections were held concurrently; after that, election cycles began to diverge as numerous legislatures were dissolved before their tenure expired.

— At present, elections to the Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, and Sikkim Assemblies are held simultaneously with Lok Sabha elections.

— “The chief issue highlighted by them is that simultaneous conduct of elections would require large-scale purchase of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machines. For conducting simultaneous elections, the Commission expects that a total of Rs 9,284.15 crore will be needed for procurement of EVMs and VVPATs. The machines would also need to be replaced every 15 years which would again entail expenditure. Further, storing these machines would increase the warehousing cost,” the committee report said.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the mini-moon, consider the following statements:

1. These are asteroids that fail to escape Earth’s gravity and end up orbiting the planet for some time.

2. They are usually very large and easy to detect.

3. Till now, no mini-moons of Earth have ever been discovered.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— According to a new study, the Earth’s gravitational field will temporarily capture a small asteroid, called 2024 PT5, in late September. The asteroid will stay for two months before flying off into space.

— Mini-moons are asteroids that fail to escape Earth’s gravity and end up orbiting the planet for some time. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— They are usually very small and hard to detect. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— According to The Planetary Society, just four mini-moons of Earth have ever been detected, and none of them are still orbiting the planet. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— An asteroid named 2024 PT5 was identified using NASA’s Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert System (ATLAS). It is reported to be only 33 feet long and too small to be seen with the naked eye or conventional amateur telescopes.

— The observations of 2024 PT5 will help scientists gain a better understanding of asteroids that pass close to Earth and occasionally collide with us. Many asteroids contain rich minerals and water, which corporations plan to extract and utilise as rocket fuel.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Powers of the J&K LG, the Lieutenant Governor shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion in a matter:

1. which falls outside the purview of the powers conferred on the Legislative Assembly

2. related to All India Services

3. related to Anti Corruption Bureau

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The first phase of election for the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly started on September 18. This is the first election since 2019, when the constitutional compact of Jammu and Kashmir was amended by the repeal of Article 370, the new Legislative Assembly will differ significantly from previous Assemblies.

— The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019 established two union territories: Ladakh, which does not have a legislature, and Jammu and Kashmir, which does.

— Section 13 of the 2019 Act states that Article 239A of the Constitution (“Creation of local Legislatures or Council of Ministers or both for certain Union territories”), which provides for the administration of the UT of Puducherry, shall also apply to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.

Powers of the J&K LG

— The 2019 Act also specifies the powers of the J&K LG. Section 53, which deals with the role of the Council of Ministers, states: “The Lieutenant Governor shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in his discretion in a matter:

(i) which falls outside the purview of the powers conferred on the Legislative Assembly; or

(ii) in which he is required by or under any law to act in his discretion or to exercise any judicial functions; or

(iii) related to All India Services and Anti Corruption Bureau.”

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

He is remembered for the Self Respect Movement to redeem the identity and self-respect of Tamils. He envisaged a Dravida homeland of Dravida Nadu, and launched a political party, Dravidar Kazhagam (DK). He quarrelled with Gandhi over the question of separate dining for Brahmin and non-Brahmin students at Gurukkulam. After failing to bend the Congress to his view, he resigned from the party in 1925, and associated himself with the Justice Party and the Self Respect Movement, which opposed the dominance of Brahmins in social life, especially the bureaucracy.

The above mentioned lines refer to:

(a) Ayyankali

(b) Chattampi Swamikal

(c) Periyar EV Ramasamy

(d) V V S Iyer

Explanation

— Rationalist social reformer Periyar EV Ramasamy was remembered on the occasion of his 146th birth anniversary in Chennai on Tuesday (September 17). DMK president and Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Stalin offered floral tributes to Periyar’s portrait in Chennai.

— Periyar, born in 1879, is most known for his Self Respect Movement, which sought to restore Tamil identity and self-respect. He envisioned a Dravidian country in Dravida Nadu and founded the Dravidar Kazhagam (DK) political party.

— Periyar began his political career as a Congress worker in his hometown, Erode. He disagreed with Gandhi on the issue of separate eating for Brahmin and non-Brahmin children at Gurukkulam, a Congress-sponsored school owned by nationalist leader V V S Iyer in Cheranmahadevi near Tirunelveli.

— After failing to persuade the Congress to his viewpoint, Periyar resigned from the party in 1925 and joined the Justice Party and the Self Respect Movement, which attacked Brahmin domination in social life, particularly the bureaucracy.

— Periyar’s name went outside Tamil Nadu during the Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924, a mass campaign demanding that lower caste people be allowed to use a public road in front of the famous Vaikom shrine.

— In the 1920s and 1930s, Periyar blended social and political change, challenging the conservatism of the Congress and the mainstream national movement in the Tamil area.

— He recreated the Tamil identity as an egalitarian ideal untainted by the caste system, and pitted it against the Indian identity championed by Congress.

— He contended that caste was brought to Tamil Nadu by Aryan Brahmins who spoke Sanskrit and arrived from Northern India.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Consider the following statements:

1. Rising temperatures cause more precipitation to fall as rain rather than snow, which increases the risk of flooding and landslides in high-altitude areas.

2. Greenhouse gases released into the atmosphere act like a blanket on the earth, trapping heat and causing temperatures to rise.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

— Severe flooding has forced tens of thousands to evacuate their homes as wide regions of Austria, the Czech Republic, Poland and Romania have been hit by days of heavy rainfall.

— Rising global temperatures, caused by burning fossil fuels, is making rainfall more frequent and severe across most parts of the world. The coastal flooding is largely driven by winds and high tides, river, groundwater and flash flooding are all linked to heavy rainfall.

— Greenhouse gases emitted into the atmosphere behave as a blanket, trapping heat and raising global temperatures. This causes faster evaporation of water on land and at sea, so when it rains, there is more water to release. And when a large amount of rain falls on the ground in a short period of time, it might cause floods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Temperature rises can cause more precipitation to fall as rain rather than snow, making high-altitude areas vulnerable to flooding and landslides. A 2022 study published in the science journal Nature discovered that in snowy, high-elevation portions of the Northern Hemisphere, rainfall extremes increased by an average of 15% for every 1 degree Celsius of warming. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Climate change influences the frequency of heavy downpours during storms and unexpected outbursts by altering complicated atmospheric and weather processes.

— According to the UN’s International Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), at a 1.5C temperature rise, which the globe is rapidly approaching, heavy precipitation that would have been a once-in-a-ten-year rainfall event will occur 1.5 times every decade and be more than 10% wetter.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the metformin, consider the following statements:

1. It is one of the most widely used drugs for treating type 2 diabetes.

2. It was first used in the United States in the 1990s.

3. It is a derivative of a compound found in Goat’s Rue.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Metformin, an affordable diabetes medication, reduces ageing in male monkeys, particularly in the brain, according to a recent study. The discovery suggests that the medicine could one day be used to slow ageing in people.

— The monkeys who were given metformin on a daily basis showed neuronal activity — the continual flicker of electrical currents and transmissions in the brain — similar to monkeys six years younger, according to the findings.

About Metformin

— It is one of the most widely used drugs for treating type 2 diabetes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It was first used in France in the 1950s. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— It is a derivative of guanidine, a compound found in Goat’s Rue, which is an herbal medicine long used in Europe. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Which of the following countries are the members of the Quad grouping?

1. India

2. United States

3. France

4. United Kingdom

5. Australia

6. Japan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 3, 5 and 6

(d) 1, 2, 5 and 6

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi began his visit to the United States by attending the fourth Quad Leaders Summit in Wilmington, Delaware.

— American President Joe Biden will host the conference on September 21 in his hometown. India is set to host the next Quad Summit in 2025.

— The Quad grouping includes India, the United States, Australia, and Japan.

— The Prime Minister went on to say that his meeting with President Biden would allow the two countries to chart new paths “to further deepen India-US Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership”.

— According to India’s Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), the leaders will review the progress made by the Quad over the past year and set a roadmap for future cooperation, particularly in helping the Indo-Pacific region meet its development aspirations.

— On September 23, Prime Minister Modi will participate in several key multilateral events in New York, starting with the United Nations Climate Action Summit, where he will highlight India’s efforts in combating climate change.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Exercise ‘AIKYA’ is related to:

(a) Mountaineering

(b) Self-defence for women

(c) Disaster Management

(d) Defence

Explanation

— The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), in collaboration with the Southern Command of the Indian Army and Tamil Nadu State Disaster Management Authority (TNSDMA), conducted “EXERCISE AIKYA,” an Integrated Symposium cum Table Top Exercise (TTEx) on disaster management, in Chennai.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to Indus Water Treaty, consider the following statements:

1. The treaty between India and Pakistan was signed on September 19, 1960, in Karachi by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and then Pakistan President Mohammed Ayub Khan after nine years of negotiations arranged by the World Bank.

2. In effect, the treaty gave India about 30% of the water carried out by the “Indus Rivers System” while Pakistan got 70% of the waters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— A year-and-a-half after New Delhi issued a notice to Islamabad seeking the “modification” of the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) in January 2023, India has once again sent a formal notice to Pakistan, this time seeking the “review and modification” of the treaty.

— The latest notice, issued under Article XII (3) of the IWT (like the one issued last year), is qualitatively different — the word “review” effectively signals New Delhi’s intent to revoke and renegotiate the 64-year-old treaty. Article XII (3) states: “The provisions of this Treaty may from time to time be modified by a duly ratified treaty concluded for that purpose between the two Governments”.

What is the Indus Waters Treaty?

— The treaty between India and Pakistan was signed on September 19, 1960, for the use of water available in the Indus and its tributaries. It was signed in Karachi by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and then Pakistan President Mohammed Ayub Khan after nine years of negotiations arranged by the World Bank. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to the IWT, India enjoys the “unrestricted use” of the three “Eastern Rivers [Beas, Ravi, Sutlej]… except as otherwise expressly provided” whereas Pakistan got control of the three “Western Rivers” [Indus, Chenab, Jhelum]. According to Article III (1) of the IWT, “India is under obligation to let flow” waters of the Western Rivers to Pakistan.

— In effect, the treaty gave India about 30% of the water carried out by the “Indus Rivers System” while Pakistan got 70% of the waters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Consider the following statements:

1. India has formally joined the International Big Cat Alliance which it launched in 2023.

2. Among the seven big cats, four are found in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— India has formally joined the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), which it launched in 2023. After approval from the Union Cabinet, India signed and ratified the framework. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Four nations, including India, Nicaragua, Eswatini and Somalia, have become the IBCA members now. In April 2023, PM Narendra Modi launched the IBCA to secure the future of big cats and their landscapes.

— Among the seven big cats, five — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard and cheetah — are found in India, excluding puma and jaguar. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Consider the following statements:

1. In September 1932, at the Yerawada Central Jail in Pune, Mahatma Gandhi began fasting unto death against the award of separate electorates to the Scheduled Castes.

2. Mahatma Gandhi argued that while joint electorates might better help integrate lower castes into the Hindu fold, they would do little to challenge their subservient position.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— It was in this week in September 1932, at the Yerawada Central Jail in Pune, that Mahatma Gandhi began fasting unto death against the award of separate electorates to the Scheduled Castes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The consequences of this fast, and the resultant Poona Pact between Gandhi and Dr B R Ambedkar, can be seen till date in the system of reservations that India has.

Ambedkar’s argument for separate electorates:

— “The depressed classes form a group by themselves which is distinct and separate … and, although they are included among the Hindus, they in no sense form an integral part of that community,” Ambedkar said during the plenary session of the First Round Table Conference in London. “The Depressed Classes feel that they will get no shred of political power unless the political machinery for the new constitution is of a special make,” he continued.

— And what was this political machinery he was talking about? Separate electorates with double vote – one for SCs to vote for an SC candidate and the other for SCs to vote for in the general electorate.

— He argued that while joint electorates might better help integrate lower castes into the Hindu fold, they would do little to challenge their subservient position. He believed that joint electorates “enabled the majority to influence the election of the representatives of the Dalits community, and thus disabled them for defending the interests of their oppression against the ‘tyranny of the majority’”. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 08 to September 14, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 01 to September 07, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 25 to August 31, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 18 to August 24, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 11 to August 17, 2024

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