UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 12 to October 18, 2025

QUESTION 1

With reference to the green crackers, consider the following statements:

1. These are developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and NEERI to have a reduced environmental impact.

2. They contain chemicals like barium nitrate and arsenic.

3. They are completely pollution-free.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The term ‘green cracker’ does not mean it is pollution-free. It refers to a formulation developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and NEERI to have a reduced environmental impact compared to traditional firecrackers. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— Their key features are:

(i) They do not contain harmful chemicals like barium nitrate, arsenic, lithium and mercury. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

(ii) They are designed to release water vapour or dust suppressants that trap a portion of the particulate matter generated.

(iii) They are claimed to reduce PM2.5 emissions by at least 30%.

(iv) They have a lower noise intensity, capped at 120 decibels.

(v) Manufacturers must obtain a licence from the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation and a certificate from CSIR-NEERI to produce and sell them. Authentic green crackers can be identified by a green logo and a QR code on the packaging.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to carbon dioxide, consider the following statements:

1. The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) is the primary driver of climate change.

2. CO2 accounts for more than 90% of all accumulated GHGs in the atmosphere.

3. Its ability to trap heat is significantly more than other GHGs such as methane and nitrous oxide.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2), the primary driver of climate change, increased by a record amount between 2023 and 2024, according to latest data released by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The year 2024 was also the warmest year ever recorded, with the global average temperature being 1.55 degrees Celsius higher than pre-industrial times. This was the first time that global annual temperatures had crossed the 1.5 degree Celsius threshold, a key limit which, when breached over a long-term period, can result in devastating irreversible impacts.

— The rapidly rising CO2 concentrations underscore the failure of the international climate framework, as represented by the Paris Agreement, to achieve a meaningful slowdown in global emissions.

— The rate of increase in CO2 concentrations had already tripled from an average of 0.8 ppm per year during the 1960s to 2.4 ppm per year between 2011 and 2020.

— CO2 is the most widespread of the greenhouse gases (GHGs), and is produced in a variety of natural and man-made processes.

— The emissions from natural processes such as respiration, ocean releases, volcano eruptions, wildfires, or decomposition of organic matter are nearly all absorbed back in other natural processes like photosynthesis, ocean and land sinks, thus maintaining a balance. Nearly half of the CO2 emissions from man-made processes, such as the burning of fossil fuels, is also absorbed by these natural sinks. It is the other half that accumulates in the atmosphere, resulting in a warming effect.

— Although CO2 accounts for more than 90% of all accumulated GHGs in the atmosphere, its ability to trap heat is significantly less than other GHGs such as methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O). CH4 is at least 25% more potent than CO2 in its heat-trapping capability, while N2O is about 270 times more potent. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the elephants, consider the following statements:

1. It is the largest mammal found in India’s forests.

2. Project Elephant was launched in 1982.

3. Compared to the 2017 numbers, Karnataka has seen the highest drop in elephant population in 2025.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— India’s Asian elephant population is estimated to be 22,446, according to the results of the much-delayed Synchronous All India Elephant Estimation (SAIEE) 2021–25.

— Compared to the last all-India estimate in 2017 (27,312), the population is lower by 4,065 elephants, or 17.81%. However, the population report added a caveat that the two figures are not directly comparable due to a change in methodology, and said the latest estimate should be treated as a “new baseline.”

— As per the latest data, elephant numbers remain highest in the Western Ghats (11,934), followed by the North Eastern Hills and Brahmaputra floodplains (6,559), Shivalik Hills and Gangetic plains (2,062), and Central India and Eastern Ghats (1,891).

— Among states, Karnataka continues to harbour the largest population (6,013), followed by Assam (4,159), Tamil Nadu (3,136), Kerala (2,785), Uttarakhand (1,792), and Odisha (912).

— The endangered Asian elephant (Elephas maximus) is an endangered species. It has been on the IUCN Red List, which details the global conservation status of animal, fungi and plant species, since 1986.

— The largest mammal found in India’s forests, elephants have been counted every five years since the launch of Project Elephant in 1992. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Compared to the 2017 numbers, the estimated population of elephants has dipped by nearly 18%, with the highest dip seen across the Northeast Region and Central India and Eastern Ghats region. Jharkhand and Odisha have seen a 68% and 54% drop, respectively, compared to the 2017 estimate. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Rakchham-Chitkul Wildlife Sanctuary was recently in the news. It is located in:

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Punjab

(d) Sikkim

Explanation

— An international bird-watching programme was organised today at the scenic Rakchham area of the Rakchham-Chitkul Wildlife Sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh under the joint aegis of the District Administration Kinnaur, Wildlife Division Sarahan, Wildlife Range Sangla, Gram Panchayat Rakchham, Youth Club Rakchham, and the Mountaineering Club Rakchham.

— The event saw participation from delegates representing 15 countries, including Austria, Switzerland, England, Germany, Italy, Norway, Kazakhstan, South Africa, Belgium, the Netherlands, Ireland, Slovenia, France, and Spain.

— During the session, participants observed and recorded more than 35 bird species, including Plumbeous Water Redstart, Blue-fronted Redstart, Rock Bunting, Yellow-breasted Greenfinch, Pink-browed Rosefinch, and Red-headed Bullfinch.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Northeast Monsoon, consider the following statements:

1. It is known as the retreating monsoon.

2. It is important for southern India.

3. It creates a high-pressure area over the Indian subcontinent and a low-pressure area over the surrounding seas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Heavy rain lashed many parts of Tamil Nadu, with the southern districts experiencing intense showers as the rainfall activity gained momentum following the onset of Northeast Monsoon.

— As the southwest monsoon begins to fade, the northeast monsoon sets in by October. This is also called the retreating monsoon. It is shorter and less widespread but still important, especially for southern India. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— By October, the land starts to cool faster than the ocean. This creates a high-pressure area over the Indian subcontinent and a low-pressure area over the surrounding seas. The direction of wind flow reverses. Now, winds blow from land to sea. These are called northeasterlies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.pib.gov.in)

QUESTION 6

Who has conducted the first-ever joint scuba diving expedition?

1. Coast Guard

2. Indian Air Force

3. Indian Navy

4. Indian Army

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— The Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Coast Guard have conducted the first-ever joint scuba diving expedition.

— The exercise was conducted off the Vijaydurg coast, Maharashtra. The joint team conducted precision dives at Angria Bank, an ecologically rich underwater plateau in the Arabian Sea.

— “This pioneering venture showcased camaraderie, operational coordination, and adventure, while also raising awareness on marine conservation and maritime domain enhancement. Together, we dive deeper for nation, nature, and unity,” the India Coast Guard said in a post.

— During the launch of the expedition, the restored Hindustan Trainer-2 (HT-2) aircraft was put up on display for the public. It is India’s first indigenous military aircraft.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the blackbuck, consider the following statements:

1. It is listed as a vulnerable species.

2. It is classified under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Over the last five years, the Chhattisgarh government has successfully reintroduced the blackbuck – a graceful medium-sized antelope that inhabits open grasslands of India and Nepal – back into the state’s forests through its five-year reintroduction plan.

(Express Photo by Jayprakash S Naidu)

— The blackbuck is listed among endangered species under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— As part of the 2021–2026 revival plan, the Chhattisgarh State Wildlife Board translocated 77 blackbucks – 50 from the National Zoological Park in New Delhi and 27 from the Kanan Pendari Zoological Garden, Bilaspur.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to antimicrobial resistance (AMR), consider the following statements:

1. It refers to the bacteria’s ability to evolve and stop responding to the drugs designed to kill them.

2. According to a recent report by the WHO, one in every six bacterial infections globally was resistant to antibiotics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The latest report by World Health Organization (WHO) shows that one in every six bacterial infections globally was resistant to antibiotics, with India being one of the biggest contributors to this alarming pattern of antimicrobial resistance (AMR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— According to the Global antibiotic resistance surveillance report 2025, nearly half (41%) of the articles on bloodstream infections originated from three countries — China, India, and Pakistan — of the 61 countries from where data was collected.

— Similarly, 42 per cent of the articles on gastrointestinal infections were from two countries — China and Islamic Republic of Iran — of the 18 countries with data, while 42 per cent of those on urinary tract infection were from four countries — India, Iraq, Islamic Republic of Iran, and Pakistan — of the 74 countries, from where data was recorded.

— Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) refers to the bacteria’s ability to evolve and stop responding to the drugs designed to kill them. The WHO considers AMR to be one of the top ten global health threats, which undermine the effectiveness of essential treatments, placing millions at risk of untreatable infections. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Loop Line Speed Control Test and SPAD Prevention Test are associated with:

(a) Kavach – Automatic Train Protection

(b) Shakti – Indigenous locomotive traction system

(c) Suraksha – Passenger safety monitoring initiative

(d) Rakshak – Train fire detection and alerting system

Explanation

— Indian Railways is making rapid progress in implementing ‘Kavach,’ an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, across its network. Recently, the national transporter conducted Kavach locomotive trials at a speed of 160 kmph in the Prayagraj Division.

— Two critical test scenarios were carried out during the trial:

— Loop Line Speed Control Test: In this test, Home signals were taken ‘off’ with route indicators for the first loop line . The locomotive was run at 160 Kmph, and KAVACH automatically controlled the speed before entering the loop line— without any manual braking or pilot intervention.

— SPAD Prevention Test at Home Signal: In this critical safety test, Home signals were maintained at the ‘ON’ (Red) aspect . The locomotive was made to approach these signals at 160 Kmph, allowing KAVACH to automatically detect the SPAD (Signal Passed at Danger) condition and apply braking to stop the train safely— without any manual intervention.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the India-China trade, consider the following statements:

1. China is India’s second-largest trading partner.

2. India’s exports to China increased in 2024-25, while imports saw a decline.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— China has lodged a formal complaint against India with the World Trade Organization (WTO), challenging New Delhi’s subsidies for electric vehicles (EVs) and batteries. The Commerce Ministry will examine China’s detailed submissions.

— According to China’s Commerce Ministry, India’s measures violate multiple WTO obligations, including the principle of national treatment, and amount to prohibited import substitution subsidies. The ministry claimed that these policies unfairly benefit India’s domestic EV industry and undermine China’s commercial interests, PTI reported.

— Facing domestic overcapacity, declining profits, and intense price competition, Chinese EV makers such as BYD are increasingly targeting overseas markets in Asia and the EU.

— China is India’s second-largest trading partner. India’s exports to China fell 14.5 per cent to USD 14.25 billion in 2024-25, while imports rose 11.5 per cent to USD 113.45 billion, widening the trade deficit to USD 99.2 billion. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Consider the following statements with reference to Tomahawk missiles:

1. They are long-range, precision-guided cruise missiles originally developed for sea-to-land strikes.

2. Ukraine has developed this missile domestically, with a range of more than 1,000 miles, first unveiled in 2015.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Ukraine has several western-supplied missiles, including US-made Atacms and GMLRS and UK and French-made Storm Shadows, with the Atacm offering a maximum range of 190 miles. Ukraine has also developed domestic missiles, such as the Flamingo, with a range of more than 1,000 miles, and the Neptune anti-ship missile, first unveiled in 2015.

— Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy met US President Donald Trump at the White House recently, proposing a deal to trade Ukrainian-made military drones for long-range Tomahawk cruise missiles.

— Tomahawks are long-range, precision-guided cruise missiles originally developed for sea-to-land strikes.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Consider the following statements:

1. Darul Uloom Deoband was established in the wake of the revolt of 1857.

2. Dar ul-Uloom Haqqania was established in Lucknow as Islamic alternative to universities being run by the British empire.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— When Amir Khan Muttaqi, Taliban-ruled Afghanistan’s Foreign Minister, visited the Darul Uloom in UP’s Deoband recently, it was a day to remember for the seminary. Such was the eagerness among locals to catch a glimpse of Muttaqi that a public event had to be cancelled, with officials saying they feared a stampede.

— Mutaqqi’s visit to the country is a crucial moment in India’s foreign policy, as New Delhi engages with the Taliban while it is yet to grant official recognition to Taliban-ruled Afghanistan. His trip to Deoband, meanwhile, underlines old ties between India and Afghanistan and the influential role Indian institutions have played in Southeast Asia.

— Darul Uloom Deoband was established on May 31, 1866, around 150 km from Delhi, in the wake of the revolt of 1857. Deoband is a town in Saharanpur district. This seminary in Deoband, and the Dar ul-Uloom Nadwatul Ulema in Lucknow, founded in 1883, were established as Islamic alternatives to universities being run by the British empire.

— Within a few years of its establishment, the Deoband madarsa became a centre for students from neighbouring and distant countries wanting to study the Quran and other Islamic principles like the Sunnah, the Shariah and the Tariqah (the spiritual path). Scholars from countries like Afghanistan, Iran, Bukhara and Samarkand, Burma, Indonesia, Malaysia, Turkey and the far-off regions of Africa came to study at the madarsa.

— The Darul Uloom is currently among the most renowned religious and academic centers in the Islamic world.In fact, it is considered second only to Al-Azhar University in Cairo, Egypt. In the sub-continent, it is the largest institution for the dissemination and propagation of Islam and the biggest headspring of education in the Islamic sciences.

— After India’s partition, a similar seminary was established in Pakistan’s Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, called the Darul Uloom Haqqania. It was established by Maulana Abdul Haq, who had taught at the Deoband seminary before Partition. Students and scholars of the Pakistan seminary went on to become members of the Taliban. It was at the Deobandi madarsas in Pakistan where the ideological foundations of the Taliban were first laid.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

The term Fitna al-Khawarij was mentioned in the news. What does it refer to?

(a) It is a term the Pakistani State uses for the militant group Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP)

(b) It is a reform movement from the 18th Century also known as Wahabism

(c) It refers to the rise of the modern state of Israel and the occupation of Palestine

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— Even as top Afghan and Pakistani officials head to Doha for peace talks on Saturday (October 18), Kabul has accused Islamabad of violating the temporary truce after airstrikes in the Paktika province late on Friday killed 10 civilians and wounded 12 others, AFP reported.

— This latest attack comes during a two-day ceasefire following week-long clashes triggered by Pakistani airstrikes in Afghanistan. 

— Pakistani security forces killed around 15 to 20 Afghan Taliban troops on Wednesday (October 15), Inter-Services Public Relations (ISPR), the Pakistan Armed Forces’ media wing, has claimed.

— “The situation is still developing. There are reports of further buildup at staging points of Fitna-al-Khwarij and [the] Afghan Taliban,” the statement said.

—‘Fitna-al-Khwarij’ is the term the Pakistani State uses for the militant group Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP).

— The current wave of violence between Pakistan and Afghanistan is over the TTP, which Pakistan accuses its neighbour of harbouring. Formed in 2007, the TTP has been behind several lethal attacks inside Pakistan.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Sikandar Badusha Dargah was recently seen in news. It is located atop the:

(a) Nandi Hills near Bengaluru

(b) Melmalai Hill in Thiruthani

(c) Palani Hills in Palani

(d) Thiruparankundram Hill in Madurai

Explanation

— The Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court has prohibited the ritual of animal sacrifice at the Sikandar Badusha Dargah, located atop the Thiruparankundram Hill in Madurai. The court’s latest decision was handed down by Justice R. Vijayakumar, who was appointed as a third judge after a two-judge Bench delivered a split verdict in June 2025.

— The petitions before the court concerned whether the dargah could continue the practice of animal sacrifice during its annual festival and if such practices are protected under Article 25 of the Constitution. The ruling settles the dispute before the temple and dargah atop a hill, which is a protected monument under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, where religious customs are subject to statutory regulation.

QUESTION 15

The ‘2025 Gaza peace summit’, a discussion on plans to end the two-year-long conflict in Gaza, was recently held in which country?

(a) Izmir

(b) Tel Aviv

(c) Sharm el-Sheikh

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— World leaders are gathered at Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt to discuss plans for ending the two-year long conflict in Gaza, deemed by scholars and UN experts to be a “genocide” perpetrated by Israel, and usher in lasting peace in the region.

— Sharm el-Sheikh has been the Venue of many international meetings which now hosted Trump-led ‘Summit for Peace’. Few of the past important events at the same venue were:

• Israel-Palestine Peace talks, 1999
• Emergency Summit, 2000
• Sharm el-Sheikh Summit, 2005
• First EU-Arab League Summit 2019
• COP27, 2022

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.