UPSC Essentials : Daily subject-wise quiz | Polity and Governance MCQs on Anti defection law, Article 239AA and more (Week 71)

1. The Appropriation Bills are introduced to meet the grants so made by the House of the People.

2. The Rajya Sabha can return the bill for reconsideration.

3. Amendments can be proposed to any such Bill in either House of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Rajya Sabha returned the appropriation and finance Bills for 2024-2025 after Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman responded to the Opposition’s attack that the Budget was anti-middle class, saying the government had reduced the burden on the middle class. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Upper House returned the Appropriation (No. 2) Bill, 2024, the Jammu and Kashmir Appropriation (No. 3) Bill, 2024 and the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024, which were passed by the Lok Sabha.

— As soon as the grants under article 113 have been approved by the House of the People, there shall be tabled a Bill to provide for the appropriation from the Consolidated Fund of India of all funds required to meet—

(a) the grants so made by the House of the People; and Hence, statement 1 is correct.

(b) the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India but not exceeding in any case the amount shown in the statement previously laid before Parliament.

(2) No amendment to any such Bill shall be proposed in either House of Parliament that will have the effect of varying the amount or changing the destination of any grant so made, or varying the amount of any expenditure charged to the Consolidated Fund of India, and the decision of the person presiding as to whether an amendment is inadmissible under this clause is final. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

(3) Subject to the provisions of articles 115 and 116, no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law passed in accordance with the provisions of this article.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Anti defection law, consider the following statements:

1. It was introduced by the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act.

2. The decisions of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification are subject to judicial review.

3. The law specifies a strict timeline for the decision.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The 52nd Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection law through the Tenth Schedule in 1985. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— According to this Schedule, a member of the State Legislature or the House of Parliament who voluntarily resigns from his/her political party or abstains from voting in the House contrary to the instruction issued by his/her party may be removed from the House.

— As per the anti-defection law, the nominated members in Rajya Sabha can join a political party within six months of their nomination. But if they join a party after the first six months, they may face disqualification from Parliament.

— The Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha or the State Legislative Assembly decides disqualification petitions under the anti-defection law.

— The law does not specify a strict timeline for the decision, which has led to criticism due to potential delays. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The Court also ruled that the decisions of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification are subject to judicial review. However, judicial intervention is limited to cases involving malafide intention, perversity, or violation of natural justice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Article 239AA, consider the following statements:

1. It conferred special status on Delhi following the recommendations of the S Balakrishnan Committee.

2. It was inserted into the Constitution by the 69th Amendment Act, 1991.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Article 239AA of the Constitution was inserted into the Constitution by the 69th Amendment Act, 1991. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Article 239AA conferred special status on Delhi following the recommendations of the S Balakrishnan Committee that was set up in 1987 to look into Delhi’s demands for statehood. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to this provision, the NCT of Delhi will have an administrator and a Legislative Assembly. Subject to the provisions of the Constitution, the Legislative Assembly, “shall have the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the NCT with respect to any of the matters in the State List or Concurrent List in so far as any such matter is applicable to Union territories,” except on the subjects of police, public order, and land.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Consider the following statements:

1. Starred questions are answered through written replies which are placed on the table of the House.

2. Unstarred questions are answered orally on the floor of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Questions are of three kinds, viz., starred, unstarred and short notice questions.

Starred Questions

— These are answered orally on the floor of the House and with reference to the reply given; members are entitled to ask supplementary questions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Unstarred Questions

— These call for written replies which are placed on the Table of the House and no supplementary are asked in respect of such replies. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Short Notice Questions

— These may be put only in regard to matters of the public importance of an urgent character at shorter notice than provided for in the Rules of the two Houses and are answered orally as starred questions.

— The Rajya Sabha/Lok Sabha Secretariat gives at least five days’ notice to the Minister concerned to answer a question.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: mpa.gov.in)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:

1. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President can be inquired into in any court.

2. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 10 per cent.

3. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Article 74 of the Constitution of India states that “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.”

— The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.

— The question of whether any and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

— The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

— The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 70)

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 70)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 70)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 70)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 70)

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