© IE Online Media Services Pvt Ltd
Tags:
Journalism of Courage
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress. Come back tomorrow to solve the History, Culture, and Social Issues MCQs. Don’t miss checking the answers and explanations.
Consider the following statements:
1. All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
— Article 77 of the Constitution of India provides for the conduct of business of the Government of India.
— All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in the manner specified in rules to be issued by the President, and the validity of an order or instrument so authenticated shall not be called into question because it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President.
— The President shall set rules for the more convenient transactions of the Government of India’s business, as well as the allocation of such work among Ministers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: Constitution of India)
When the resolution for removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker from office is under consideration, then he/she:
1. can preside over the meeting
2. can vote only in the first instance
3. can speak during the proceeding
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
— Article 96 of the Constitution of India provides that the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker shall not preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration. Hence, 1 is not correct.
— At any sitting of the House of the People, while any resolution to remove the Speaker from his office is being considered, the Speaker, or the Deputy Speaker, shall not preside, even if he is present.
— The Speaker shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of, the House of the People while any resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in the House, and shall, notwithstanding anything in article 100, be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings, but not in the case of an equality of votes. Hence, 2 and 3 are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: Constitution of India)
Consider the following cases:
1. Kesavananda Bharati case
2. Golaknath case
3. Shankari Prasad Case
4. Minerva Mills case
What is the correct chronological sequence of these cases (earliest to latest)?
(a) 3—2—1—4
(b) 2—3—1—4
(c) 3—1—2—4
(d) 4—3—2—1
Explanation
| Case | Year | Description |
| Shankari Prasad Case | 1951 | The Shankari Prasad case upheld the validity of the first constitutional amendment making inroads into property rights by the legislature unchallengeable. The Court held Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 to be plenary and declined to fetter it by any limitations. |
| Golaknath case | 1967 | In Golaknath (1967), a 6-5 majority held the entire Part 3 unamendable, while overruling both Shankari Prasad and Sajjan Singh and asserting that “the core rights in our foundational assembly (cannot) be altered by changes.” |
| Kesavananda Bharati case | 1973 | In Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru and Ors vs State of Kerala, the court upheld the land ceiling laws that were challenged, it struck down a portion of the 25th Amendment (1972) which stated that “if any law is passed to give effect to the Directive Principles” it cannot “be deemed to be void on the ground that it takes away or abridges any of the rights contained in Article 14, 19 or 31”. |
| Minerva Mills case | 1980 | In Minerva Mills Ltd vs Union Of India, the Supreme Court struck down a clause inserted in Article 368 (which gives the power and lays down the procedure to amend the Constitution), which said “there shall be no limitation whatever on the constituent power of Parliament to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal the provisions of this Constitution.” |
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following articles of the constitution of India stipulate that courts are not allowed to inquire into proceedings of Parliament?
(a) Article 119
(b) Article 120
(c) Article 122
(d) Article 123
Explanation
— India’s government is parliamentary, similar to the British system. However, it learned from the United States and established the judiciary as the defender of the constitution. As a result, India’s court has the jurisdiction to review legislative and executive actions.
— For instance, Article 53(1) states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President, while Article 154 says that the executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor, which they may exercise either directly or through their subordinate officers.
— Articles 122 and 212 of the Indian Constitution stipulate that courts are not allowed to inquire into proceedings of Parliament and State Legislatures, respectively. It guarantees that the judiciary would not meddle in legislative matters.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the ordinances, consider the following statements:
1. Article 123 of the Constitution of India provides for the power of the President to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
2. It has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament
3. Once an ordinance is passed, the Houses of Parliament cannot disapprove it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Explanation
— Under Article 123 of the Constitution (“Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament”), “if at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.” Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— An Ordinance “shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament”. But the government is required to bring an Ordinance before Parliament for ratification — and failure to do so will lead to its lapsing “at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— The Ordinance may lapse earlier if the President withdraws it — or if both Houses pass resolutions disapproving it. (Rejection of an Ordinance would, however, imply the government has lost the majority.) Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 78)
Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 78)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 78)
Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 78)
Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 78)
Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.
Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.
