UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 13 to July 19, 2025

QUESTION 1

With reference to the gravitational waves, consider the following statements:

1. Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime created by movements of massive objects.

2. The existence of gravitational waves was proposed in Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity in 1915.

3. For the first time, the gravitational waves were detected in 2015.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Scientists have reported the discovery of gravitational waves from the merger of two black holes that are the biggest to have been observed in such an event. Black hole mergers are rare but some of the most spectacular events in the universe, releasing massive amounts of energy that are propagated to a very large distance through gravitational waves.

— Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime created by movements of massive objects, just like the movement of a boat in a lake produces ripples in water. But these are extremely weak, and only gravitational waves produced in very big events, like the merger of two black holes, can be detected by instruments on Earth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The existence of gravitational waves was proposed in Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity in 1915. However, it was only in 2015, exactly 100 years later, that scientists were able to detect these for the first time, using extremely sensitive equipment at the two detectors built in the United States for this purpose, called the Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory, or LIGO. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the INS Nistar, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Navy commissioned INS Nistar at the Naval Dockyard in Kochi.

2. It has been designed and constructed in collaboration with France.

3. It is meant to support deep-sea diving and submarine rescue operations.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Indian Navy commissioned INS Nistar at Visakhapatnam’s Naval Dockyard. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Indigenously designed and constructed by Hindustan Shipyard Limited, Nistar is the first of two diving support vessels (DSVs) that were ordered by the Navy in 2018. Its sister ship, Nipun, was launched in 2022, and is expected to be commissioned in the near future. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— These DSVs, designed to enable deep-sea diving and submarine rescue missions, would improve India’s undersea operational preparedness while also reinforcing the country’s strategic maritime posture across the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), according to the Navy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to ‘The Resistance Front’ (TRF), consider the following statements:

1. It is an offshoot of the Afghanistan-based terror group Taliban.

2. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) declared the TRF a “terrorist organisation” under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act in January 2023.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The US Department of State added The Resistance Front as a designated Foreign Terrorist Organization (FTO) and Specially Designated Global Terrorist (SDGT).

— The Resistance Front (TRF) had claimed responsibility for the April 22 Pahalgam attack, which resulted in the deaths of 26 people in the Baisaran meadow in South Kashmir’s Pahalgam. Indian Minister of External Affairs S Jaishankar welcomed the news in a social media post, terming it a “strong affirmation of India-US counter-terrorism cooperation.”

— The Resistance Front (TRF) is an offshoot of the Pakistan-based terror group Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) declared the TRF a “terrorist organisation” under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act in January 2023. The government said it was engaged in propaganda on terror activities, recruitment of terrorists, infiltration of terrorists and smuggling of weapons and narcotics from Pakistan into Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the attachment of property by the Enforcement Directorate (ED), consider the following statements:

1. According to Section 5 of PMLA, the Director of ED or any other officer (Deputy Director and above) authorised by him can issue orders for attachment of a property that is suspected to have been acquired with the proceeds of crime in a case of a scheduled offence.

2. The order is valid for 1 year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has submitted a charge sheet against businessman Robert Vadra. A probe indicated that Robert Vadra secured the business licence for the land through his personal influence. On July 16, 2025, a provisional attachment order was issued, attaching 43 immovable properties worth Rs 37.64 crore belonging to Robert Vadra and his firms M/s Sky Light Hospitality Pvt. Ltd. and others.

— According to Section 5 of PMLA, the Director of ED or any other officer (Deputy Director and above) authorised by him can issue orders for attachment of a property that is suspected to have been acquired with the proceeds of crime in a case of scheduled offence. The attachment order is issued if the Director feels that “such proceeds of crime are likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner which may result in frustrating any proceedings relating to confiscation of such proceeds of crime”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The order is valid for 180 days. If it is not confirmed by an ED-appointed Adjudicating Authority by then, the property is automatically released. Because the initial attachment is provisional, the accused can continue to enjoy the property until the Adjudicating Authority confirms the attachment — after which the ED has the power to claim possession. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Maratha Forts, consider the following pairs:

1. Pratapgad Fort – Maharashtra

2. Panhala Fort – Karnataka

3. Salher Fort – Gujarat

4. Gingee Fort – Tamil Nadu

Which of the pairs given above are correctly marked?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation

Fort	Location	Description
Pratapgad Fort	Satara, Maharashtra	Pratapgad Fort, built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1656, is located in the harsh environment of the Western Ghats, 24 kilometres from Mahabaleshwar.
Panhala Fort	Kolhapur, Maharashtra	Panhala Fort near Kolhapur was designed to be a self-sustaining settlement. Originally built in the 12th century CE by the Shilaharas, a feudatory dynasty of the Rashtrakutas who ultimately founded their independent kingdom, the fort was occupied by the Yadavas of the Deccan, the Bahmani sultanate, the Adil Shahi kingdom of Bijapur, and finally the Marathas.
Salher Fort	Nashik, Maharashtra	Salher Fort is located in Satana taluka of Nashik district, near the village of Salher. It is a significant landmark of the Sahayadri mountain range, the highest fort in Maharashtra and one of the highest in the Western Ghats, located at a height 1,567 metres (5,141 feet).
Gingee Fort	Villupuram, Tamil Nadu	Gingee Fort, located in Tamil Nadu’s Villupuram district, is regarded as one of Peninsular India’s most powerful fortresses. Gingee, like many other forts, has served as a bastion for various dynasties, including the Vijayanagar Nayaks, Bijapur Sultans, Mughals, Marathas, French, and English.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a scheme to develop 100 agricultural districts through the convergence of 36 schemes of 11 ministries.

2. The scheme will be implemented for ten years beginning with the current financial year, 2025-26.

3. The District Agriculture and Allied Activities Plan will be prepared by the District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti headed by the Chief Minister.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Union Cabinet approved the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY), a scheme to develop 100 agricultural districts through the convergence of 36 schemes of 11 ministries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The scheme has an outlay of Rs 24,000 crore per year, and will be implemented for six years beginning with the current financial year, 2025-26. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— A master plan for the implementation of PMDDKY, which will include agriculture and allied activities, will be drawn up for every district. This District Agriculture and Allied Activities Plan will be prepared by the District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti headed by the Collector, and will have progressive farmers as members. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Consider the following statements about the Akash Prime missile:

1. It ensures more reliable performance under low-temperature environments at higher altitudes.

2. Akash missile is a short to medium-range surface-to-air missile.

3. It has an indigenous active Radio Frequency (RF) seeker for improved accuracy to hit the aerial targets.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Akash Prime missile which is the upgraded variant of Akash weapon for the high altitude region, was successfully tested in Ladakh as destroying Aerial High Speed Unmanned targets with pinpoint accuracy.

— The successful validation of the Akash Prime weapon system has been done by the Army Air Defence and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in conjunction with Defence PSUs such as Bharat Dynamics Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited, and other industry partners.

— The initial version of the Akash missile has an operational range of 27 to 30 kilometers and a flight altitude of around 18 kilometers. The Akash Prime, which underwent its maiden flight test in September 2021 has the same range as that of the earlier version but has a crucial new addition of an indigenous active Radio Frequency (RF) seeker for improved accuracy to hit the aerial targets. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Other important improvements in Akash Prime provide more consistent performance in low-temperature situations at higher elevations. These new enhancements were produced in response to input from armed services regarding the system’s deployment to provide air defence cover for critical sites and sensitive areas in high-altitude regions. The weapon system is designed to operate at altitudes exceeding 4,500 meters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The development of the Akash, a short to medium range surface to air missile, was started by the DRDO in the late 1980s as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following countries are members of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?

1. Iceland

2. Sweden

3. Liechtenstein

4. Denmark

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

— The free trade agreement between India and the four-nation European bloc EFTA will be implemented from October 1, Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal said. The two sides signed the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) on March 10, 2024.

— Under the pact, India has received an investment commitment of USD 100 billion in 15 years from the grouping while allowing several products, such as Swiss watches, chocolates, and cut and polished diamonds, at lower or zero duties.

— The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) members are Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.

— The bloc has committed an investment of USD 100 billion — USD 50 billion within 10 years after the implementation of the agreement and another USD 50 billion in the next five years — which would facilitate the creation of 1 million direct jobs in India. This is a first-of-its-kind pledge agreed upon in any of the trade deals signed by India so far.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Port Klang was in the news recently. It is located in:

(a) Oman

(b) Myanmar

(c) Malaysia

(d) South Korea

Explanation

— INS Sandhayak, the first of the indigenously designed and built hydrographic survey ship, is visiting Port Klang in Malaysia to foster international goodwill and elevate awareness of the MAHASAGAR vision.

— Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions or MAHASAGAR vision of India seeks to boost regional maritime cooperation.

— INS Sandhayak, the Indian Navy’s indigenously designed and constructed survey vessel (large), made her maiden port call at Port Klang, Malaysia, for hydrographic cooperation from July 16-19.

— This visit demonstrates India’s growing role in regional hydrographic capacity building under the Indian Naval Hydrographic Department (INHD) and National Hydrographic Office framework, said a spokesperson of the Indian Navy.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Spousal privilege, consider the following statements:

1. It means that a person cannot be compelled to testify against their spouse in a criminal case.

2. In India, Section 122 of the Evidence Act codifies this.

3. The Supreme Court ruled that secretly recorded conversations between spouses are admissible evidence in matrimonial disputes, including divorce proceedings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The Supreme Court ruled that secretly recorded conversations between spouses are admissible evidence in matrimonial disputes, including divorce proceedings. It set aside a 2021 Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment which had barred a husband, who sought a divorce, from using secretly recorded phone conversations with his wife as evidence in court. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The apex court’s ruling changes the contours of spousal or marital privilege in Indian law, which protects private conversations between a husband and a wife during their marriage, and even after the marriage has ended.

— Spousal privilege means that a person cannot be compelled to testify against their spouse in a criminal case. It is rooted in the idea that a degree of protection has to be provided to private conversations between a husband and a wife during their marriage. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— In India, Section 122 of the Evidence Act codifies this. It states: “No person who is or has been married, shall be compelled to disclose any communication made to him during marriage by any person to whom he is or has been married; nor shall he be permitted to disclose any such communication, unless the person who made it, or his representative-in-interest, consents, except in suits between married persons, or proceedings in which one married person is prosecuted for any crime committed against the other.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Spousal privilege does not apply directly in divorce cases where one spouse makes allegations against the other spouse and testifies in a court of law. These allegations are supplemented by evidence such as letters, photographs or testimonies of other people. However, with technological advances, text messages, video and voice recordings, emails are often presented as evidence.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Which of the following cities has been declared the cleanest city as per the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 awards?

(a) Indore

(b) Ahmedabad

(c) Bhopal

(d) Lucknow

Explanation

— Ahmedabad was named the cleanest big city in the country in the Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 awards, followed by Bhopal and Lucknow, even as past winners, including Indore and Surat, were moved to a new ‘Super Swachh League’ category that was kept out of the nationwide ranking.

— President Droupadi Murmu presented the award to Ahmedabad for being the top city among those with a population of 10 lakh or above during the awards ceremony in New Delhi. This year, the awards included a separate category of recognition for cities that had been in the top three of their categories in the previous three years.

QUESTION 12

Which of the following states of India became the first to launch a genome sequencing project for tribals?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Gujarat

(c) Karnataka

(d) Kerala

Explanation

— Gujarat has launched a first-of-its-kind project, under which, genome sequencing of 2,000 people from various tribal communities across 17 districts in the state will be carried out to identify the “burden of hereditary diseases”, including sickle cell anemia.

— Gujarat is the first state to launch a tribal genome project, said Tribal Development Minister Kuber Dindor, who participated in a state-level dialogue in Gandhinagar on Tuesday.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Consider the following statements with reference to the news from education sector in India:

1. The PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan, which was called the National Achievement Survey (NAS) in previous iterations is conducted by PRATHAM NGO.

2. The objective of the PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan survey is to evaluate the effectiveness of India’s school education system by assessing competencies at various educational stages.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Learning levels are yet to bounce back to pre-Covid levels in the primary stage, with students in Class 3 still not having caught up with the performance recorded in 2017, reveals Parakh Rashtriya Sarvekshan 2024, a survey conducted by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).

— The PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan, which was called the National Achievement Survey (NAS) in previous iterations, assessed 21.15 lakh students in Classes 3, 6, and 9 across 74,229 schools in December 2024.

— Significantly, the 2024 survey was aligned with the stages of the National Education Policy 2020, under which Class 3 marks the end of the foundational stage of school education, Class 6 the end of the preparatory stage, and Class 9 the end of the middle stage. The objective of this survey is to evaluate the effectiveness of India’s school education system by assessing competencies at various educational stages.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

The National Board for Wildlife’s Standing Committee recently approved the diversion of 310 hectares of forest land from the core area of which Tiger Reserve for the construction of the Arunachal Frontier Highway (NH-913) in Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) Namdapha Tiger Reserve 

(b) Kamlang Tiger Reserve

(c) Dampa Tiger Reserve

(d) Pakke (Pakhui) Tiger Reserve

Explanation

— From infrastructure for a forward aviation base, facilities for missiles and vital road linkages along the Line of Actual Control, the standing committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) has approved proposals for critical Defence projects along the boundary with China, stretching from eastern Ladakh to Sikkim to Arunachal Pradesh.

— It has also cleared construction of the Arunachal Frontier Highway close to the Myanmar border, through the core zone of the Namdapha Tiger Reserve subject to mitigation measures to minimise impact on wildlife and their habitats. The project will divert 310 hectares of forest from the tiger reserve — committee members have noted it will also lead to tree felling.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Consider the following:

1. Study of space microalgae

2. Myogenesis study

3. Sprouting of methi and moong seeds

4. Study on cancer behavior in microgravity

Which of the above-mentioned research studies were not part of Indian astronaut Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla or his three colleagues’ tasks on the Axiom-4 mission?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 4 only

Explanation

— During his time in space, Shukla conducted and completed all seven microgravity experiments and other scheduled scientific tasks. These included research on the Indian strain of Tardigrades, Myogenesis, Sprouting of methi and moong seeds, Cyanobacteria, Microalgae, Crop seeds, and the Voyager Display.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 06 to July 12, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 28 to July 05, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 22 to June 28, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 15 to June 21, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 08 to June 14, 2025

Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.