UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | May 04 to May 10, 2025

🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for April 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

QUESTION 1

With reference to the HAROP UAV, consider the following statements:

1. It carries a camera which is nose-mounted and can be used by the operator to see the area of operation and choose targets.

2. It has been developed by the United States.

3. It has a nine-hour endurance to seek targets in a designated area.

4. It can overcome challenges in communication with its immunity to Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) jamming.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— India also targeted multiple air defence systems in Pakistan and successfully hit one in Lahore. The latest Israeli HAROPs, a type of unmanned combat aerial vehicle were used. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— HAROP is a kind of loitering munition. This category of weapons is named so because they loiter in the air close to the designated target. They cause destruction by crashing into their targets with the explosive payload that they carry, earning names such as “suicide drones” and “kamikaze drones”.

— HAROP remains a formidable loitering munition equipped to hunt high-value targets like unmanned surface vessels, command posts, supply depots, tanks, and air defense systems. It carries a camera which is nose-mounted and can be used by the operator to see the area of operation and choose targets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— HAROP has a nine-hour endurance to seek targets in a designated area, locate and identify them, plan an attack route, and then pursue the strike from any direction at a shallow or steep dive. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— It can also overcome challenges in communication with its immunity to Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) jamming. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— It is launched from canisters mounted on trucks or naval vessels and can be deployed from diverse terrains and environments.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

A technique known as drafting is used in which sports?

1. Bicycle racing

2. Running

3. Cricket

4. Triple Jump

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation

— When Roger Bannister broke the four-minute mile barrier on May 6, 1954, he did so by closely following two pacesetters for more than 80 percent of the race, using a method known as Drafting.

— Drafting is a method in which a runner closely follows another athlete running ahead of her, decreasing wind resistance and calorie expenditure. Kipyegon achieved the world record in 2023 by running the fourth lap alone.

— Drafting, a technique for reducing wind resistance, is often employed in bicycle racing, motorcycle racing, vehicle racing and speed skating. It is also utilised in triathlons, as well as jogging, kayaking, and cross-country skiing. In these sports, competitors gain from following closely behind others, which reduces wind resistance and allows for faster or more efficient performance.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Metabolic Dysfunction-Associated Steatohepatitis (MASH), a serious form of disease, is associated with:

(a) Heart

(b) Kidney

(c) Lungs

(d) Liver

Explanation

— A medicine originally created to treat diabetes and now taken for weight loss may have another important application: halting, and possibly reversing, liver deterioration.

— In a 72-week phase 3 clinical trial involving 800 participants from 37 countries, an international team of researchers discovered that a weekly dose of semaglutide was effective in treating Metabolic Dysfunction-Associated Steatohepatitis (MASH), a serious form of fatty liver disease, in nearly two-thirds of patients. Semaglutide is an important component of the diabetes medicine Ozempic and the weight reduction drug Wegovy.

— The findings give compelling evidence that semaglutide can aid by improving liver health while simultaneously treating the underlying metabolic problems that contribute to the disease.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Kosmos 482 mission, consider the following statements:

1. This mission was part of a series of probes that the erstwhile Soviet Union launched during the Cold War.

2. The mission was to explore Mars.

3. Most parts of the mission came back to Earth within 10 years of liftoff.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— A piece of a Soviet spacecraft launched more than 50 years ago is expected to crash back to Earth. The part, which is from the Kosmos 482 mission, was supposed to land on Venus but could not as something went wrong with the spacecraft, and it failed to finish its mission.

— Most of the mission, which launched on March 31, 1972, returned to Earth within ten years of launch. Only one part, weighing approximately 500 kg, became stranded in orbit and was gradually drifting towards Earth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The mission was one of a series of probes launched by the former Soviet Union during the Cold War to study Venus. There were two reasons why people were interested in the planet. One theory held that Venus’ heavy clouds concealed life on the planet’s surface. Two, the Soviets sought to demonstrate their scientific superiority by sending probes to a distant planet. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct..

— From 1961 to 1984, the government deployed 28 spacecraft to Venus as part of the Venera Program (called after the Russian word for Venus). Thirteen probes successfully entered the Venusian atmosphere, ten of which landed on the planet. They could barely live for 23 minutes to two hours on Venus because of the severe environment.

— The Kosmos 482 was outfitted with a variety of equipment that measured temperature, pressure, wind speed, visibility, atmospheric gases, and rock composition before transmitting the information back to Earth via radio.

— Soon after Kosmos 482’s launch, a malfunction took place in the rocket. “The upper rocket stage that was meant to propel the Kosmos 482 bus out of Earth orbit shut off too early because the timer wasn’t set correctly,” according to a report in The Conversation.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following states/Union territories:

1. Jammu and Kashmir – Ladakh (combined)

2. Gujarat

3. Rajasthan

4. Punjab

What is the correct order (high to low) of these states in terms of border length shared with Pakistan?

(a) 3—1—2—4

(b) 2—3—1—4

(c) 1—2—3—4

(d) 1—3—4—2

Explanation

— After Pakistan attempted to engage military targets in northern and western India, including sites in Rajasthan, Punjab and Gujarat, these border states took precautionary measures, including increasing patrolling at the borders, preparing evacuation plans, and cancelling leaves of police personnel.

— India shares a 3323-kilometer border with Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.

— Seven police districts in Punjab, which shares a 553-kilometer border with Pakistan, have been instructed to maintain a rigorous monitoring along the border.

— In Rajasthan, where the border is 1037 kilometres long, the government has taken various measures to prepare for any eventuality, including closing schools, conducting mock drills, cancelling flights, preparing evacuation plans, monitoring social media, ensuring the availability of medicines and doctors, and cancelling leaves.

— While Gujarat shares approximately 510 kilometres of border with Pakistan, both UTs combined Jammu & Kashmir-Ladakh shares approximately 1200 kilometres of border with Pakistan.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the prebiotics and probiotics, consider the following statements:

1. Prebiotics are live microorganisms which, when administered in adequate amounts, confer a health benefit.

2. Probiotics are better known as dietary fibre.

3. Both probiotics and prebiotics are said to encourage a healthy microbiome, which plays a crucial role in our health.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Probiotics are defined by the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organisation and the World Health Organisation as “live microorganisms that, when administered in adequate amounts, confer a health benefit.” These microorganisms include bacteria and yeasts found in foods like yoghurt, sauerkraut, and kombucha, as well as supplements. However, prebiotics relate to the “food” that probiotics require to survive and reproduce. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Prebiotics are also known as dietary fibre. They comprise fibres such as inulin-type fructans, galacto-oligosaccharides, resistant starch, and pectin. Prebiotics are found naturally in plant foods, added to foods (such as bread and breakfast cereals), and available as supplements. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Both probiotics and prebiotics are believed to promote a healthy microbiome. That is a healthy population of various microorganisms that reside in or on your body. The microbiota is extremely important for our health. A healthy microbiome, for example, has been related to a lower risk of cancer, cardiovascular disease, allergies, and inflammatory bowel disease. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following state governments launched the “One State, One Registration” scheme, allowing citizens to register property documents in any sub-registrar office in the state?

(a) Kerala

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Maharashtra

Explanation

— On May 1, the Maharashtra state government announced the “One State, One Registration” initiative, which allows residents to register property paperwork in any sub-registrar office across the state, regardless of where the property is located.

— The measure aims to make property registration more user-friendly for citizens. It will have no effect on property prices or tax rates, but it may make property buying and selling more efficient and secure.

— The new policy eliminates location-specific limits. Whether you buy in Pune, Nagpur, or Nashik, you may now register your property documents at any sub-registrar office in Maharashtra whenever you choose.

— It significantly speeds the property registration procedure, especially in areas like Mumbai, Pune, and Thane, where hundreds of real estate transactions take place each month.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the ‘Revolt of the year’ 1857, arrange the following events in chronological order:

1. Sir Hugh Wheeler surrendered at Kanpur

2. Battle of Chinhat

3. The Siege of Aarah

4. Mangal Pandey fired at a British officer

Which of the chronological orders given below is correct?

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 4-1-2-3

(c) 2-4-3-1

(d) 3-2-1-4

Explanation

— On June 27, 1857, Sir Hugh Wheeler, commander of the station, surrendered and was killed on the same day at Kanpur.

— The Battle was fought on June 30, 1857, in Chinhat, near Lucknow. The East India Company’s army, led by Sir Henry Lawrence, the Chief Commissioner of Oudh, against a “small troop of rebels” led by sepoy mutineer Barkat Ahmad.

— On the morning of July 27, the rebel sepoys, joined by Kunwar Singh and his forces, arrive in Arrah. For the next eight days, the rebels continued firing at the fortified house where the European residents were staying. The rescue operation under Major Vincent Eyre, stationed in Buxar, was successful in defeating the rebel sepoys and forced Kunwar Singh, along with his men, to retreat and leave Aarah.

— On March 29, 1857, sepoy Mangal Pandey fired at a British officer, and his comrades refused to arrest him. This led to his court-martial, and he was ultimately hanged to death.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: A brief History of Modern India)

QUESTION 9

With reference to India’s air defence systems, which of the following is indigenous?

1. S400 Triumf

2. Barak 8

3. Akash

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— The S-400 Triumf is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by Russia. It is capable of engaging aircraft, UAVS, cruise missiles, and has a terminal ballistic missile defence capability. It represents the fourth generation of long-range Russian SAMs, and the successor to the S-200 and S-300. Hence, 1 is not correct.

— Barak 8 is an Indian-Israeli jointly developed surface-to-air missile (SAM) system, designed to defend against any type of airborne threat, including aircraft, helicopters, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs as well as ballistic missiles, cruise missiles and combat jets. Hence, 2 is not correct.

— AKASH is an indigenous short-range surface-to-air missile system to protect vulnerable areas and vulnerable points from air attacks developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence, 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: missilethreat.csis.org)

QUESTION 10

Which of the following battles is related to World War II?

1. Battle of Stalingrad.

2. Battle of Tannenberg

3. Battle of Amiens

4. Battle of Sekigahara

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 4 only

Explanation

— Former Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik and Russian Ambassador Denis Alipov inaugurated a memorial plaque dedicated to the late Biju Patnaik at the Russian Embassy in New Delhi.

— The Battle of Stalingrad, fought from July 1942 to February 1943, was a major battle on the Eastern Front of World War II, where Nazi Germany and its Axis allies clashed with the Soviet Union over control of the city of Stalingrad. It is widely considered a turning point of the war, marking the beginning of Germany’s retreat from the Eastern Front.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

With reference to the IMF Executive Board, consider the following statements:

1. It is responsible for conducting the day-to-day business of the IMF.

2. Its directors are selected by the UN General Assembly.

3. India currently has no permanent director on the board.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Executive Board (the Board) is responsible for conducting the day-to-day business of the IMF. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It is composed of 25 Directors, who are elected by member countries or by groups of countries, and the Managing Director, who serves as its Chairman. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, in an order dated April 30, had approved the “termination” of his services as IMF’s Executive Director (India), “with immediate effect.” Subramanian had six months left in his three-year term as the IMF’s Executive Director. India currently does not have a permanent director on the IMF board. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: imf.org)

QUESTION 12

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.

2. Appointing the Council of Ministers.

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.

4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— While the Governor can advise the President on imposing President’s Rule, the ultimate decision and the imposition itself rests with the President. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Under Article 164, Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister, and the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Provided that in the State of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes or any other work.

— Under Article 200, the Governor shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom or that he reserves the Bill for the consideration of the President. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Under Article 166(3), the Governor shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 13

Consider the following pairs with reference to the Terrorist & Militant Groups and the Region associated:

1. Al-Shabaab – Somalia

2. Jaish-e-Mohammed (JEM) – Afghanistan

3. Houthi rebels – Yemen

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Explanation

— A missile attack on Tel Aviv’s Ben Gurion International Airport by Yemen-based Houthi militia hit the perimeter of the Ben Gurion International Airport—the busiest airport in Israel—leaving a few people injured. In view of the incident, the Tata group airline has suspended services to and from the Israeli city till Tuesday (May 6).

Al-Shabaab: The Harakat Shabaab al-Mujahidin—commonly known as al-Shabaab—was the militant wing of the Somali Council of Islamic Courts. Despite the group’s defeat by Somali and Ethiopian forces in 2007, al-Shabaab—a clan-based insurgent and terrorist group—has continued its violent insurgency in southern and central Somalia. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

Jaish-e-Mohammed (JEM): Also known as the Army of Mohammed, Khudamul Islam, and Tehrik ul-Furqaan among other names—is an extremist group based in Pakistan. It was founded by Masood Azhar in early 2000 upon his release from prison in India. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

Houthi rebels: A ballistic missile launched by Yemen-based Houthi militia hit the perimeter of the Ben Gurion International Airport—the busiest airport in Israel—leaving a few people injured. While claiming responsibility for the attack, also reportedly warned airlines that the Tel Aviv airport was not safe for travel. The Houthis have been launching attacks against Israel over the latter’s military offensive in Gaza. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: dni.gov)

QUESTION 14

With reference to the ‘genome’ often seen in the news, which statement is/are correct?

1. The genome is the entire set of DNA instructions found in a cell.

2. Some plants contain an unexplainably large genome.

3. ‘Genome sequencing’ helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) has over the past five months released detailed graphical summaries, infographics, and other details of over 100 bacterial genomes as part of the ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative launched to harness the microbial potential of India.

— The genome is the entire set of DNA instructions found in a cell, which contains all the information needed for an individual to develop and function. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Some genomes are incredibly small, such as those found in viruses and bacteria, whereas some plant genomes can be almost unexplainably large. For example, the rare Japanese flower called Paris japonica has a genome size of roughly 150 billion nucleotides, making it 50 times the size of the human genome. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The technique of ‘Genome sequencing’ helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants, identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants, and decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to the Kaleshwaram lift irrigation project, consider the following statements:

1. It is the world’s largest multi-purpose irrigation project on the Krishna River.

2. It is located in the Mulugu district.

3. The project aims to supply water for irrigation, industrial, and domestic uses to the northern area of Telangana.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project or KLIP is currently the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana, India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— KLIP on the Godavari river in Telangana’s Jayashankar Bhupalpally district, across the border from Maharashtra. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— KLIP will supply water over a swath of northern Telangana under which 169 has been allocated for irrigation, 30 for Hyderabad municipal water, 16 for miscellaneous industrial uses and 10 for drinking water in nearby villages with a total culturable command area of 1,825,000 acre⋅ft (2,251 hm3) across all 13 districts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: bhoopalapally.telangana.gov.in)

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 27 to May 03, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 20 to April 26, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 13 to April 19, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 06 to April 12, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 30 to April 05, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 23 to March 29, 2025

Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.

Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.