UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 19 to October 25, 2025

QUESTION 1

What is the correct order (high to low) of global carbon sequestration on forest land?

1. United States

2. China

3. Russia

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1—2—3

(b) 2—3—1

(c) 3—2—1

(d) 1—3—2

Explanation

— Forests cover approximately 4.14 billion hectares, around one-third (32 per cent) of the Earth’s land area, according to a recent FAO report.

— Deforestation remains a major global challenge, occurring at an alarming rate of 10.9 million hectares annually. While still high, this represents a slowdown compared to 17.6 million hectares per year in 1990–2000.

— Forests also continue to act as a net carbon sink, removing roughly 3.6 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide (Gt CO₂) annually between 2021 and 2025, as per the 2025 Forest Resources Assessment.

— Russia, China, and the United States led global carbon sequestration on forest land, recording annual removals of 1,150 Mt CO₂, 840 Mt CO₂, and 410 Mt CO₂, respectively, in 2021–25.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

The Nellie massacre was the most violent flashpoint of the:

(a) Assam Agitation against illegal migration from Bangladesh

(b) Telangana movement for statehood

(c) Naxalite uprising in West Bengal

(d) Anti-Hindi agitation in Tamil Nadu

Explanation

— Forty-two years after the Nellie massacre took place and 41 years after the report of the Tiwari Commission that was constituted to probe it was submitted, the Assam Cabinet took a decision to table it in the legislative assembly next month.

— The Nellie massacre of February 18, 1983, was the most violent flashpoint of the Assam Agitation against illegal migration from Bangladesh, taking place over several hours. The official death toll was 1,800 – mostly Bengali-origin Muslims – but the unofficial figure is 3,000. While 668 FIRs were registered in relation to the violence in a period of two months following it, nobody was arrested.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

The 2012 Rules of the Forest Rights Act (FRA) provide a range of key provisions and rights on issues such as:

1. Community rights

2. Management of forest resources by communities

3. Disposal of minor forest produce

4. Powers of Gram Sabha to protect customary rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— In a strong defence of the landmark Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) has sharply rebutted a plea which has challenged before the Supreme Court (SC) the legal validity of the 2012 Rules, made under the law.

— In a counter affidavit filed before the SC, the Centre has not only defended the legal validity of the Act but also stressed that the law goes beyond mere land ownership regularisation and aims to restore dignity, livelihoods, and cultural identity of forest-dependent communities.

— It has also rebutted assertions that FRA violates the wildlife and forest protection laws, and has termed as misguided the view that rights of forest-dwelling communities conflict with wildlife and forest conservation. It cited the examples of indigenous communities such as Baiga and Santhal and said they have lived harmoniously with wildlife, nurturing and preserving them through traditional practices.

— Further, it also defended a range of key provisions and rights provided under the 2012 Rules of the Act on issues such as community rights, management of forest resources by communities, disposal of minor forest produce, and powers of Gram Sabha to protect customary rights.

— Enacted in 2006, the FRA seeks to recognise and vest forest rights in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers who have lived on such lands for generations but whose rights were never formally recorded.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to India’s makhana (foxnut), consider the following statements:

1. It is the dried edible seed of the prickly water lily.

2. It is a species which grows in saltwater ponds across South and East Asia.

3. The Indian state of Bihar contributes to roughly 90% of India’s makhana (foxnut) production.

4. It is classified as a cereal crop under the Indian agricultural system.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The state of Bihar contributes to roughly 90% of India’s makhana (foxnut) production. In recent months, members of the ruling party, including the Prime Minister himself, have repeatedly spoken about the government’s efforts to support the makhana industry. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Makhana is the dried edible seed of the prickly water lily or gorgon plant (Euryale ferox), a species which grows in freshwater ponds across South and East Asia. The plant is known for its violet and white flowers, and massive, round and prickly leaves — often stretching more than a meter across. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Most of the makhana grown in India comes from Bihar, where production is concentrated in the nine districts of northern and eastern Bihar — Darbhanga, Madhubani, Purnea, Katihar, Saharsa, Supoul, Araria, Kishanganj and Sitamarhi — which fall in the so-called Mithilanchal region. Of these, the first four districts mentioned contribute to 80% of Bihar’s makhana production.

— While makhana has been consumed, often in ritual settings, for centuries, of late it has gained popularity as a “superfood” due to its nutritional benefits — experts say that makhana is nutrient-dense and low-fat, making it an ideal “healthy snack”.

— Makhana is not a cereal crop; rather, it is categorised as an aquatic cash crop (or non-cereal food crop) grown primarily in marshes and ponds. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

A person is considered an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholder:

(a) if he or she is holding dual citizenship of India and another country.

(b) if he or she is residing in India for more than 182 days in a year.

(c) if he or she is born in India after 1950 and holds a valid Indian passport.

(d) if he or she is registered by the Government of India under Section 7A of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015.

Explanation

— All Overseas Citizens of India can now complete and submit the e-Arrival card online within 72 hours before arriving in India.

— The submission can be done at boi.gov.in, indianvisaonline.gov.in, or via the official ‘Indian Visa Su-Swagatam’ mobile app.

— The Government of India introduced the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Card and Person of Indian Origin (PIO) Card Schemes benefit the Indian Diasporas in terms of connectivity with the motherland, hassle-free travel to India, and advantages in social, economic, and educational fields.

— The OCI Scheme, launched in August 2005, allows registration as an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) for all Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were citizens of India on 26th January 1950 or thereafter, or were eligible to become citizens of India on that date — except those who are or had been citizens of Pakistan, Bangladesh, or any other country specified by the Central Government through notification in the Official Gazette.

— A person is considered an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholder if he or she is registered by the Government of India under Section 7A of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Indian Ornamental Tarantula, consider the following statements:

1. It is native to western India.

2. It is not deadly to humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Indian Ornamental Tarantula is one of India’s most famous large spiders. Native to southern India, particularly the forests of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, it has a leg span of about 6–7 inches. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Its beautifully patterned legs, shades of brown and cream, make it a sought-after species for enthusiasts. While it is not deadly to humans, a bite can cause pain and swelling. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following can disrupt market access and payment channels?

1. Sanctions

2. Financial restrictions

3. Operational barriers

4. Weather preferences of consumers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has said that geopolitical risks — including sanctions and restrictions on financial systems — have emerged as major factors shaping the future of cross-border payments.

— The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has said that geopolitical risks — including sanctions and restrictions on financial systems — have emerged as major factors shaping the future of cross-border payments.

— According to the central bank, sanctions, financial restrictions, and other operational barriers can disrupt market access and payment channels. In response, some affected countries are exploring bilateral or multilateral alternatives to reduce their exposure to such disruptions.

— Consumer preferences for climate and weather-related items have no direct impact on market access or payment mechanisms.

— As part of its Payments Vision Document 2025, the RBI said it has been working with international partners to reduce friction in global payment systems. One of the key problem areas identified is the delay in crediting inward cross-border remittances to beneficiaries. To address this, the RBI has launched a review to identify bottlenecks in the remittance process and recommend measures to make settlements faster and more efficient.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

The semaglutide is:

(a) a medication used to support weight loss and diabetes management

(b) a vaccine for influenza

(c) an antibiotic for bacterial infections

(d) a painkiller for chronic arthritis

Explanation

— A new analysis of the SELECT trial, the largest and longest clinical trial to date examining the cardiovascular benefits of ‘semaglutide’ — a medication used to support weight loss and diabetes management — confirms it also lowers the risk of major heart problems in people who are obese and already have heart disease, even if they don’t have diabetes.

— This heart protection happens regardless of how much weight a person loses or their baseline body weight, according to the new study, published in The Lancet on October 22.

— The SELECT trial originally studied over 17,000 adults with heart disease and a body mass index (BMI) of 27 or higher, comparing semaglutide to a placebo.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), consider the following statements:

1. It consists of securities and other financial assets held by investors outside of their domestic market.

2. It provides the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Drawn by more attractive pricing and growth prospects, foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) are making a beeline for India’s primary market this year.

— Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) consists of securities and other financial assets held by investors outside of their domestic market. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets and is relatively liquid, depending on the volatility of the market. Along with foreign direct investment (FDI), FPI is one of the common ways to invest in an overseas economy. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— FDI and FPI are both important sources of funding for most economies.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.investopedia.com)

QUESTION 10

Rampur and Mudhol are the breeds of:

(a) Buffalo

(b) Hound

(c) Goat

(d) Camel

Explanation

— The Border Security Force (BSF) has started training 150 dogs of the indigenous Rampur and Mudhol Hound breeds. These dogs will be used in BSF’s border guarding duties, counterinsurgency operations, and special tasks.

— This is not the first time that Mudhol Hounds will be in service with security forces. They have been part of the Indian armed forces and some paramilitary forces.

Mudhol Hounds

— The breed is known for its hunting and guarding skills. Mudhol Hounds are lanky and fast runners, with excellent stamina and agility. They have a sharp vision and a good sense of smell.

Rampur Hound

— Rampur Hounds are a sleek and athletic sighthound breed. They have a well-built frame with tall, long legs, a narrow torso, and a deep chest designed for speed and endurance. Rampur Hounds are one of the fastest dogs, capable of running at more than 40 mph, helping them excel in coursing and hunting.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

The award-winning book ‘The Burning Earth: An Environmental History of the Last 500 Years’ is authored by:

(a) Jasleen Kaur

(b) Samantha Harvey

(c) Kiran Desai

(d) Sunil Amrith

Explanation

— Indian-origin historian Sunil Amrith has been named the winner of the 2025 British Academy Book Prize for The Burning Earth: An Environmental History of the Last 500 Years, a panoramic account of how human ambition has transformed the planet, and how the planet, in turn, has shaped human history.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

With reference to Global Forest Resources Assessment (GFRA) 2025, consider the following statements:

1. India has climbed to ninth spot globally in total forest area and retained its third rank in annual forest area gain.

2. Russia, Brazil, Canada, the United States of America, and China remain the top five countries with the largest forest areas globally.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— India has climbed to ninth spot globally in total forest area and retained its third rank in annual forest area gain, according to a new report by the UN Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav said India’s rise from the 10th to the ninth position marks a “major achievement” in sustainable forest management and ecological conservation. Hence statement 1 is correct.

— According to the report, the world has 4.14 billion hectares (ha) of forest, or 32 percent of total land area and equivalent to 0.50 ha of forest per person. The report pointed out that the rate of deforestation is declining, but still high at nearly 10.9 million ha per year in 2015–2025.

— Russia, Brazil, Canada, the United States of America, and China remain the top five countries with the largest forest areas globally. However, the annual rate of forest cover loss has increased globally. Between 2000 and 2015, forest loss averaged 3.68 million hectares per year, which has now risen to 4.12 million hectares due to a reduction in net forest gains in China, Canada, and the United States. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

In which country, previously known to be free of mosquitoes, was the first sighting of the insect recorded this month?

(a) Denmark

(b) Norway

(c) Finland

(d) Iceland

Explanation

— Iceland, one of the few places in the world to be free of mosquitoes, recorded its first sighting of the insect this month. Scientists have announced the discovery of three mosquitoes, two females and one male.

— The discovery was made by insect enthusiast Björn Hjaltason in his garden in the town of Kjós. “I could tell right away that this was something I had never seen before,” he told the Icelandic newspaper Morgunblaðið.

— While it is yet to be confirmed how mosquitoes arrived in Iceland, scientists have said that rising temperatures are making Iceland more hospitable to the insects.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

The Ningol Chakouba festival was recently in the news due to a fish fair. Which of the following states celebrates this festival?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Manipur

(c) Goa

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— The Manipur government Wednesday organised the 46th ‘Fish Fair-cum-Fish Crop Competition’ at Hatta Kangjeibung, Imphal, drawing huge crowds and active participation from fish farmers and consumers across the state. The event is a part of the Ningol Chakouba festival.

— Manipur consumes around 60,000 metric tonnes of fish annually, with demand being particularly high during Ningol Chakouba festivals. This year, the Fisheries Department has set a target of selling 1.5 lakh kg of fish during the fair, featuring a wide range of varieties, including the local Shareng (freshwater shark), which remains a key attraction during the Ningol Chakouba festivities.

— Ningol Chakouba festival falls on the second lunar day of the Manipuri calendar’s Hiyangei month (November). Ningol means ‘married woman’ and Chakouba means ‘invitation for a feast’. On this day, married women are invited to their parents’ home for a feast. The invitation comes from the son(s) of the parental family of the Ningols, generally a week in advance. The essence is to strengthen the bond of affection among the brothers and sisters, daughters and parents of a family.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

“Primary and secondary sanctions” are often seen in news headlines due to the U.S. and the EU’s sanctions on Russia. Consider the following statements in this context:

1. Under international law, primary sanctions are viewed as coercive measures that penalise third states or their entities for maintaining relations with a sanctioned actor.

2. Unlike primary sanctions, which regulate a state’s own nationals and territory, secondary sanctions target external actors to influence their dealings with the primary target.

3. Secondary sanctions operate by altering access to the sanctioning state’s market or financial system, creating indirect pressure on third parties to conform to the sanctioning state’s policy objectives.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— As the sanctions regime against Russia has evolved, focus of efforts by the G7 countries and the EU has increasingly been on preventing sanctions evasion and closing any remaining loopholes in the existing regime. Individuals and entities in third countries have become sanctions targets and measures to address Russia’s “shadow fleet”. These new sanctions are called the “secondary sanctions”.

— Under international law, secondary sanctions are viewed as coercive measures that penalise third states or their entities for maintaining relations with a sanctioned actor. Unlike primary sanctions, which regulate a state’s own nationals and territory, secondary sanctions target external actors to influence their dealings with the primary target. They operate by altering access to the sanctioning state’s market or financial system, creating indirect pressure on third parties to conform to the sanctioning state’s policy objectives. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statements 2 and 3 are correct.

— The US and the EU’s latest round of sanctions on Russia goes against Delhi’s policy position on sanctions that have been imposed unilaterally and that impact India’s economic interests and energy security. Delhi has been buying oil from Russia due to economic reasons and cushioning the impact of crude prices on its consumers.

— Sources said Washington and Brussels have imposed fresh sanctions, but Delhi has always been of the view that “unilateral sanctions” are against the principles of international law.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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