UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 12 to January 18, 2025

QUESTION 1

What were the considerations in choosing Sriharikota as India’s spaceport?

1. It is on the east coast

2. Proximity to the equator

3. Uninhabited area

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The Union Cabinet has approved the construction of a third launchpad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) on Sriharikota, a spindle-shaped island off the east coast of Andhra Pradesh.

— The new launchpad will assist the Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) in becoming future-ready to employ its heavier Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV), which is presently in development.

Why was Sriharikota chosen?

— There were two primary reasons for selecting Sriharikota as the launch site. One, it is on the east coast which facilitates the launching of the rockets in an easterly direction. Two, its proximity to the equator. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— To take advantage of the Earth’s rotation, launch a rocket eastwards. For a launch site near the equator, the magnitude of the velocity imparted by Earth’s rotation is approximately 450 m/s, which can result in a significant increase in the payload for a particular launch vehicle. Geostationary satellites must be on the equatorial plane. So, for such satellites, the closer the launch site to the equator, the better.

— Other factors to consider included the fact that it was largely uninhabited and closer to the sea. This helps ensure that the flight path of launch vehicles or rockets is totally over the water, allowing for the unrestricted impact of separated rocket gear on the high seas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Kuki-Zomi people, consider the following statements:

1. These are an ethnic group in the Southern Indian states.

2. The Chin Hills is a thickly forested region home to many tribes that fall under the Zo umbrella.

3. Hmar and Ralte tribes are not included in the Kuki-Zomi people.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Kuki-Zo representatives from a civil society organisation in Manipur’s Churachandpur met with MHA officials, which one leader described as a “courtesy meeting”.

— The Kuki people, also known as the Kuki-Zo people, are an ethnic group that lives in the northeastern Indian states of Manipur, Nagaland, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, as well as the adjacent Bangladesh and Myanmar. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Chin Hills, also known as the Indo-Chin Hill Ranges, are a densely forested region in northeastern Myanmar with elevations ranging from 2,100 to 3,000 metres. The Hills are home to many tribes that fall under the Zo umbrella. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Zo peoples are made up of all tribes of the Chin-Kuki-Mizo ethnic group that live in Myanmar, India, and Bangladesh, as well as various sub-tribes and clans like the Chin, Kuki, Mizo, Lushei, Zomi, Paitei, Hmar, Ralte, Pawi, Lai, Mara, Gangte, Thadou, and others. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the solar corona, consider the following statements:

1. These are constantly spewing gases and particles into space in the form of solar wind.

2. They are electrically neutral.

3. They travel very slowly and cannot reach the farthest parts of the solar system.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Space Docking Experiment (or SpaDeX) made India only the fourth country to accomplish the technically difficult accomplishment of combining two fast-moving satellites in space.

What is a solar corona?

— The Sun constantly emits gases and particles into space in the form of solar wind. These particles are electrically charged and originate in the Sun’s heated outer atmosphere, known as the solar corona. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— Solar wind can travel millions of miles per hour and reach the furthest reaches of the solar system. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— These solar winds create space weather. Their frequency and intensity vary according to the solar activity cycle, which is a periodic 11-year fluctuation in the Sun’s activity as determined by sunspot observations. These dots are signs of solar activity, and the more the activity, the more severe the space weather.

— The current solar cycle started in late 2019. The cycle reached its peak in November 2023, and we are now in the midst of an extended era of high solar activity.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

He is the legendary American boxer who won the World Heavyweight Boxing Championship three times and an Olympic gold medal. He was named “Sportsman of the Century” by Sports Illustrated magazine in 1999. He was also known for his activism. He was involved in several social causes, including the Civil Rights Movement, the anti-war movement, and humanitarian efforts. The boxer is said to have thrown his Olympic gold medal to protest against racism.

The above-mentioned lines refer to:

(a) Andre Ward

(b) Keyshawn Davis

(c) Richard Torrez Jr.

(d) Muhammad Ali

Explanation

— On January 17, 1942, the legendary American boxer Muhammad Ali, known as ‘The Greatest’, was born.

— He won the World Heavyweight Boxing Championship three times, an Olympic gold medal, and was dubbed “Sportsman of the Century” by Sports Illustrated in 1999.

— However, Ali was also recognised for his advocacy. He was active in a number of social causes, including the Civil Rights Movement, the Anti-War Movement, and humanitarian activities.

— The boxer is believed to have tossed his Olympic gold medal as a protest against racism.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following act/s is/are responsible for relocating villages from tiger reserves?

1. Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006

2. Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972

3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

— The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) asked states last week to compile statistics on the number of villages and households within India’s tiger reserves, as well as details on communities evacuated outside, and the status of forest land and produce claims settled under the Forest Rights Act of 2006.

— The Centre’s instruction was sparked by complaints and petitions over suspected evictions received from villages across Tadoba, Durgavati, and Buxa tiger reserves in recent months.

What governs the relocation process?

— The Forest Rights Act (FRA) was passed in 2006, and the Wildlife Protection Act of 2006 was amended. These two laws are critical to implementing community relocations.

— The WPA authorises wildlife managers in national parks and tiger reserves to develop safe, people-free zones. However, it must be viewed in conjunction with the FRA rules, which allow individuals to claim land titles and gather non-timber forest produce such as mahua, gooseberry, and tendu leaves. According to these statutes, relocation is voluntary and must be carried out under’mutually agreed terms and conditions.’

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Mission Mausam, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to cover all aspects of weather and forecasting services offered in the country.

2. It will directly benefit sectors such as agriculture, aviation and defence.

3. The mission has been inaugurated to mark the 200 years of the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The India Meteorological Department (IMD), which was founded in 1875, will mark its 150th anniversary. To commemorate the event, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Mission Mausam. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The mission’s goal is to strengthen India’s weather department’s predicting, modelling, and dissemination skills. Mission Mausam will have a budget of Rs 2,000 crore for the first two years of execution.

— According to a government statement, it would make significant investments in weather observation, modelling, and forecasting to directly help critical industries such as agriculture, aviation, and defence, as well as disaster management, tourism, and health. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Mission Mausam intends to include all areas of weather and forecasting services available in the country. A similar boost to monsoon prediction occurred in 2012, with the advent of Mission Monsoon. It had aimed to improve India’s long-term forecasts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Currently, IMD forecasting of extreme events like heatwaves up to 24 hours in advance is approximately 97.99 percent accurate. The accuracy of heavy rainfall projections, however, is just approximately 80%.

— The mission will also’manage’ specific weather occurrences, enhancing or suppressing rainfall, hail, fog, and, eventually, lightning strikes.

— Cloud physics is one of the most crucial areas for effective weather modification, and India must strengthen its research in this field. To that purpose, India is developing a first-of-its-kind cloud chamber at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) in Pune.

— A cloud chamber resembles a closed cylindrical or tubular drum into which water vapour, aerosols, and other materials are pumped. A cloud can form inside this chamber when the humidity and temperature are just right.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the aeroponic, consider the following statements:

1. Plants grown aeroponically eliminate the need for soil or any other medium.

2. This method reduces water usage by 98% and fertiliser usage by 60%.

3. Plants grown in aeroponic systems have been shown to absorb less minerals and vitamins.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The lobia (black-eyed pea) seeds that the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) sent to space on December 30 as a part of its Compact Research Module for Orbital Plant Studies (CROPS) germinated last week.

— The most significant challenge is microgravity, a situation in which people or objects appear weightless.

— The lack of gravity prevents plant roots from developing downward, making nutrition delivery problematic. In microgravity, water tends to cling to every surface it touches, therefore when sprayed over the base of a plant, it does not trickle down to the roots, where it would be absorbed.

— Scientists have previously cultivated plants in space on a tiny scale. The space garden on the International Space Station, known as ‘Veggie’ or the Vegetable Production System, is the size of a typical carry-on bag. It normally houses six plants.

What is an aeroponic system?

— Plants can also be cultivated aeroponically, without the requirement for soil or any other media. This strategy saves 98% of water, 60% of fertiliser, and completely removes the need for pesticides. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— “Plants grown in aeroponic systems have been shown to absorb more minerals and vitamins, making them healthier and potentially more nutritious,” says the US space agency NASA. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The ISRO CROPS box resembles a little greenhouse. It has a soil-like substrate, lobia, water, lights that simulate sunlight, and air that is similar to Earth. “The only difference is gravity, which is approximately 0.01 g,” or 1% of the gravitational strength on Earth’s surface.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following pairs:

Frontline combatants	Related Project
INS Vaghsheer	15B stealth destroyer class
INS Surat	Scorpene-class project
INS Nilgiri	Project 17A stealth frigate class

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Explanation

— Three frontline combatants — INS Nilgiri, lead ship of the Project 17A stealth frigate class, INS Surat, fourth and final ship of the Project 15B stealth destroyer class, and INS Vaghsheer, sixth and final submarine of the Scorpene-class project — were commissioned in the Indian Navy at the Naval Dockyard in Mumbai.

Frontline combatants	Related Project	Description
INS Vaghsheer	Scorpene-class project	INS Vaghsheer is the sixth and final submarine of the modern stealthy Kalvari class, constructed under Project 75. The Kalvari class of submarines is based on the Scorpene class, which was conceived and constructed by the French defence firm Naval Group (formerly DCNS) and the Spanish state-owned company Navantia. They use diesel electric gearbox systems and are primarily “attack” or “hunter-killer” submarines, which means they are intended to target and sink opposing naval vessels.
INS Surat Project	15B stealth destroyer class	The fourth and last stealth guided missile destroyer under Project 15B joins INS Visakhapatnam, INS Mormugao, and INS Imphal, which were all commissioned within the last three years. INS Surat is the Indian Navy’s first Al (artificial intelligence)-enabled warship, and it will use indigenously created Al technologies to improve operating efficiency significantly.
INS Nilgiri	Project 17A stealth frigate class	The Nilgiri-class stealth frigate, codenamed Project 17A, is a successor to the currently operational Shivalik class or Project 17 frigates. This type of ships follows an “integrated construction” strategy, which includes considerable pre-outfitting at the block stage to shorten overall construction times. The multi-mission frigates can operate in “blue water” environments — deep oceans distant from the shore — and combat both conventional and unconventional threats.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the QS World Future Skills Index 2025, consider the following statements:

1. India has been ranked first in terms of preparedness for jobs of the future including artificial intelligence (AI) and green skills.

2. India ranked 25th across all indicators.

3. The index does not include the alignment between skills and employer needs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— India has been ranked second in terms of preparedness for jobs of the future including artificial intelligence (AI) and green skills, only behind the United States, in the QS World Future Skills Index 2025. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— But in terms of economic transformation, India has been ranked 40th, and in terms of the workforce having the desired skills for future jobs, 37th, in the index.

— The QS World Future Skills Index employs particular measures to assess how well countries are prepared to handle the changing needs of the global labour market. QS (Quacquarelli Symonds) is one of the world’s major data analysis and solution providers for the higher education sector.

— Overall, India scored 25th in all metrics, which include alignment between skills and employer needs, academic preparation, and economic development. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— According to the research, India’s aggregate ranking places it as a “future skills contender”. Countries in the top ten, including the United States, United Kingdom, Germany, Australia, and Canada, have been designated as “future skills pioneers”.

— The survey evaluated four broad indicators identified by QS:

SKILLS FIT: This metric assesses how well countries prepare graduates with the skills that employers want.

FUTURE OF WORK: This assesses a country’s readiness to recruit for the skills required for tomorrow’s occupations.

ACADEMIC READINESS: This factor assesses how well a country is prepared for the future of employment.

ECONOMIC TRANSFORMATION: This employs a weighted formula to evaluate a country’s readiness to support the growth and future of work and skills by assessing a variety of key factors.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the measurement of obesity, consider the following statements:

1. A person with a BMI of less than 18.5 is considered to be overweight.

2. A person with a BMI between 25 and 29.9 is considered underweight.

3. A person with a BMI between 18.5 and 24.9 is considered to be normal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

— A new definition and method for diagnosing obesity has been proposed by a commission of the medical journal The Lancet.

— The Lancet Diabetes & Endocrinology Commission, a group of 58 renowned experts from diverse medical disciplines and nations, has released a new definition that goes beyond the simple cutoff mark for Body Mass Index (BMI), which is currently the international norm. Years of research have shown that BMI, or a person’s weight-to-height ratio, is insufficient for diagnosing and treating obesity.

— Different cutoffs for BMI have so far been the standard way of diagnosing obesity across the world. A person with a BMI of less than 18.5 is considered to be underweight, a BMI between 18.5 and 24.9 is considered to be normal, those with a BMI between 25 and 29.9 are considered to be overweight, and those with BMI over 30 are considered to be obese. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct and statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

With reference to Kashi Tamil Sangamam, consider the following statements:

1.The Kashi Tamil Sangamam is an event of the government of India’s Ministry of Culture to create awareness about the cultural connections between the two centres of learning and culture in ancient India – by facilitating people-to-people connections across different walks of life.

2.The Banaras Hindu University will be organising the third edition of ‘Kashi Tamil Sangamam’.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT Madras) will be organising the third edition of ‘Kashi Tamil Sangamam’ between February 15 and 24.

— The Kashi Tamil Sangamam is an event of the government of India’s Ministry of Education to create awareness about the cultural connections between the two centres of learning and culture in ancient India – by facilitating people-to-people connections across different walks of life. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— IIT Madras is inviting applications in five categories through the portal — kashitamil.iitm.ac.in. Registration is open to the public. The Banaras Hindu University (BHU) will be the receiving Institute in Varanasi for this event. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

The term “abetment” (of suicide in criminal law) is defined under Section 107 of the IPC, which is the same as Section 45 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). A person abets the doing of a thing, if she :

(i) instigates any person to do that thing

(ii) engages with one or more others in a conspiracy for the doing of that thing

(iii) intentionally aids, by any act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) i and ii only

(b) ii and iii only

(c) i and iii only

(d) i, ii and iii

Explanation

— The Supreme Court on Thursday highlighted the need to sensitise investigation agencies and courts in abetment of suicide cases under Section 306 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC).

Abetment of suicide in criminal law

— The term “abetment” is defined under Section 107 of the IPC, which is the same as Section 45 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS).

— A person abets the doing of a thing, if she (i) instigates any person to do that thing, or (ii) engages with one or more others in a conspiracy for the doing of that thing, or (iii) intentionally aids, by any act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Who among the following is related with the Kuka revolt of 1872?

(a) Satguru Ram Singh

(b) Kartar Singh

(c) Udham Singh

(d) Sohan Singh Bhakna

Explanation

— Punjab Chief Minister Bhagwant Mann on Friday (January 17) afternoon paid tribute at a function organised at the Namdhari Shaheed Smarak in Malerkotla to mark the Kuka martyrs’ day. On January 17 and 18, 1872, some 66 Namdhari Sikhs, also known as Kukas, were executed — placed in front of cannons and blown up — in the town.

— Contrary to popular perceptions, Indians continued to pick up arms against the British in the decades following the Rebellion of 1857. These movements were localised, and hence put down easily by the colonial power.

— One such rebellion was led by Namdharis in Punjab. Also called kukas because of their trademark high-pitch style of reciting the Gurbani — kook in Punjabi refers to “screaming” or “crying” — the Namdharis were a Sikh sect founded by Satguru Ram Singh in Ludhiana on April 12, 1857.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to Olive ridley turtles, consider the following statements:

1.Olive ridley turtles arrive near the Tamil Nadu coast around September-October to breed and their nesting season begins in late November and ends in March.

2.Finding carcasses of olive ridley turtles is not uncommon during their mating season as the turtles mate near shore areas and females arrive in small batches for nesting on Tamil Nadu’s beaches where they often get trapped in long fishing nets of commercial trawlers as bycatch.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Over the past two weeks, numerous dead olive ridley turtles have washed ashore in Tamil Nadu, particularly in Chennai. Experts have estimated that so far, between 300 and 350 turtles have been found dead.

— Olive ridley turtles arrive near the Tamil Nadu coast around September-October to breed. Their nesting season begins in late November and ends in March. Although deaths during nesting season are not unusual, the large number of turtle carcasses found this early in the nesting period has sparked concerns among conservationists and citizens. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Finding carcasses of olive ridley turtles is not uncommon during their mating season. The turtles mate near shore areas and females arrive in small batches for nesting on Tamil Nadu’s beaches. As a result, they often get trapped in long fishing nets of commercial trawlers as bycatch — the unintentional capture of non-target marine life — and die, according to experts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to Greenland, consider the following statements:

1. Greenland, the world’s largest but sparsely-populated island, is currently an autonomous territory of Finland.

2. The island is abundant in natural resources, particularly minerals that are critical to many future technologies, and is located strategically near the emerging shipping lanes around the Arctic.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

After the initial shock and disbelief, United States President-elect Donald Trump’s offer to acquire Greenland, through a purchase or by force, seems to be getting into a more serious conversation. Greenland’s Prime Minister Múte Egede on January 13 said his territory would work to strengthen defence and mining ties with the US. He, of course, ruled out joining the US.

Greenland, the world’s largest but sparsely-populated island, is currently an autonomous territory of Denmark. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The island is abundant in natural resources, particularly minerals that are critical to many future technologies, and is located strategically near the emerging shipping lanes around the Arctic. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 05 to January 11, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 29, 2024 to January 04, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 22 to December 28, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 15 to December 21, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 08 to December 14, 2024

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