UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 10 to August 16, 2025

QUESTION 1

With reference to India’s nuclear capacity, consider the following statements:

1. India’s installed nuclear capacity stood at roughly 8.8 gigawatts (GW) as of June 30, 2025.

2. Indian government has opened the doors of nuclear energy to the private sector.

3. India aims to grow nuclear generation capacity tenfold by 2047.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi, in his Independence Day address from the Red Fort, called for India to become self-reliant in energy and critical minerals, pointing to the opportunity cost of a high petroleum import bill. Modi also said the government has “opened the doors” of nuclear energy to the private sector, and aims to grow nuclear generation capacity tenfold by 2047. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— In 2024-25, India’s crude oil imports were valued at $137 billion, petroleum products at $24 billion, and liquefied natural gas (LNG) at $15 billion. Altogether, they accounted for 22.3 per cent of India’s total imports, compared to 23 per cent in 2023-24, according to the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

— PM Modi said critical minerals have taken centre stage globally, underpinning technologies across sectors — from energy to industrial to defence. “That is why we have launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM). Exploration is underway at more than 1,200 sites, and we are moving ahead towards becoming self-reliant in critical minerals as well,” he said.

— “India is taking big initiatives on nuclear energy. Ten new nuclear reactors are currently operational. We have also resolved to increase our nuclear energy capacity by 10 times by 2047,” PM Modi said in his address. India’s installed nuclear capacity stood at roughly 8.8 gigawatts (GW) as of June 30, accounting for just under 2 per cent of its total electricity generation capacity. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The livestock and companion animal sector plays a pivotal role in the country’s agricultural economy and rural livelihoods.

Statement 2: The animal husbandry and dairying sector contributes about 30 per cent of the agricultural GVA and 5.5 per cent of the national economy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

— The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying invited comments from experts, institutions, and the public on draft “Guidelines/ Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for Blood Transfusion & Blood Bank for Animals in India” that it prepared last month.

— India is home to a very large livestock population of 536.76 million, according to the 20th Livestock Census conducted in 2019, and is also seeing a boom in the practice of keeping pets or companion animals.

— Livestock include cattle, buffalo, goats, and sheep, as well as animals such as horses, ponies, mules, donkeys, camels, and pigs. India has the world’s largest population of cattle and buffalo, and the second-largest population of goats. The population of companion animals is estimated at 125 million, according to the draft guidelines.

— The livestock and companion animal sector plays a pivotal role in the country’s agricultural economy and rural livelihoods. The animal husbandry and dairying sector contributes about 30 per cent of the agricultural GVA and 5.5 per cent of the national economy. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

The Sudarshan Chakra Mission is a:

(a) A space exploration programme aimed at sending India’s first manned mission to Mars.

(b) An archaeological initiative to preserve ancient Indian temples and cultural heritage.

(c) A renewable energy mission focused on harnessing solar and wind power for national grid stability.

(d) A major defence initiative aimed at protecting India’s strategic, civilian, and religious sites from enemy threats.

Explanation

— The 79th Independence Day celebrations on Friday started off with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s 103-minute address — longest I-Day speech by any Indian PM till date. Addressing the nation from the ramparts of Red Fort, Modi paid tributes to the heroes of India’s freedom struggle. As he went on to detail India’s standing 88 years after Independence, he also made a few key announcements in various sectors — technology, economic, job and security sectors.

— Drawing “inspiration from Lord Shri Krishna”, Modi announced the launch of Sudarshan Chakra Mission — a major defence initiative aimed at protecting India’s strategic, civilian, and religious sites from enemy threats. “India is set to launch Mission Sudarshan Chakra to build a powerful weapon system to thwart any attempt by enemies to attack us,” he said. He added the government aims to integrate the latest technological tools so that all the public places are covered by the nationwide security shield by 2035.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Samudrayaan Mission, consider the following statements:

1. It is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry human beings to a water depth of 6000 meters in the ocean.

2. It is India’s first manned deep-sea mission.

3. Till now, only two countries have successfully carried out crewed deep-ocean missions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The training dives also underline a rare collaboration. France opened access to one of the world’s few submersibles capable of such depths after months of back-and-forth, at a time when most nations guard deep-sea technology closely. The Nautile gave the Indian team more than a seat — it gave them first-hand exposure to mission protocols, vessel handling, and recovery operations.

— “We will have an Indian going to space and another diving 6,000 metres under the sea in our own mission by 2027. Our deep sea mission is coinciding with the mission to space — even these dives and Shubhanshu Shukla’s travel to the International Space Station have coincided. Both these sectors, which have remained underexplored, will play a significant role in *Viksit Bharat*,” Union Science Minister Dr Jitendra Singh said.

— Samudrayaan Mission is aimed to develop a self propelled manned submersible to carry 3 human beings to a water depth of 6000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Samudrayaan is part of the country’s Deep Ocean Mission, which will, for the first time, take a three-member crew 6,000 metres below the surface in the indigenously developed Matsya6000 submersible. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The mission aims to develop technologies to access and transport tonnes of valuable minerals from the ocean-bed in an environmentally safe manner. Equipped with scientific sensors and tools, Matsya6000 can operate for 12 hours, extendable to 96 in emergencies. Only five countries — the USA, Russia, China, France, and Japan — have so far carried out successful crewed deep-ocean missions; India is set to join this exclusive club. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following countries has experienced a decline in population for the 16th consecutive year in 2024, marking the largest population drop since 1968?

(a) North Korea

(b) China

(c) Japan

(d) Brazil

Explanation

— The year 2024 saw Japan’s total population decline by more than 908,000 people to around 120.65 million (or 12 crore), according to recent official data. A DW report stated that while this was the largest population drop since 1968, it was also the 16th straight year in which the Japanese population shrank.

— One important trend in this context is the falling birth rate in Japan, or the number of births per 1,000 people in the population over a given period. “Some 686,061 newborns were recorded in 2024, the lowest number since records began in 1899,” DW reported. As a result, the total population has contracted in recent years.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Which of the following states in India is set to become India’s ‘first’ digitally-literate state?

(a) Kerala

(b) Mizoram

(c) Sikkim

(d) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

— On August 21, Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan will declare Kerala as India’s first digitally-literate state, all thanks to an innovative campaign to familiarise its population with digital technology.

— Spearheaded by the state’s local self-government department, the ‘Digi Keralam-complete digital literary programme’ had one aim — taking the digital revolution to all sections of people, regardless of their age, and help them avail its e-services. The massive programme, launched in 2023, did this by first surveying 83 lakh households to identify the “digitally illiterate” and eventually, holding training modules.

— According to officials at the LSGD, 2.57 lakh trained volunteers – including MGNREGA supervisors, the National Service Scheme, the National Cadet Corps and the Nehru Yuva Kendra – conducted a survey covering 1.50 crore people in 83 lakh families. This helped them shortlist 21 lakh digitally illiterate people, including several elderly people over 90.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Hydrogen Train Engine India, consider the following statements:

1. India’s hydrogen-powered engine, developed with indigenous technology, can deliver 1200 horsepower, surpassing other hydrogen engines across the world.

2. The locomotive is designed by the Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— India’s first hydrogen trainset is ready for its official launch. Recently, this train has cleared load tests and is set for final commissioning. The Ministry of Railways has plans to run 35 Hydrogen-powered trains under “Hydrogen for Heritage” on various heritage/hill routes.

— The hydrogen train will push India ahead in its journey towards green transportation technology to support zero carbon emission goals as a clean energy source.

— The railways will perform field trials of the first hydrogen trainset from Jind to Sonipat stations in Haryana, which is 89 km long. The stations are administratively controlled by the Northern Railway’s Delhi Division.

— India’s hydrogen-powered engine, developed by the Research, Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO), is expected to be the world’s most powerful. While most countries have produced hydrogen trains with capacities ranging from 500 to 600 horsepower (HP), India has made a significant advance by developing an engine with a capacity of 1,200 horsepower. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the NISAR mission, consider the following statements:

1. The satellite will scan the entire globe every 30 days, providing a series of very detailed images of the Earth’s surface.

2. NASA’s L-band and ISRO’s S-band can see through clouds, smoke, rain or fog, thus getting an unfiltered view of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The gigantic antenna reflector on earth observation satellite NISAR, a joint Isro-Nasa mission, has successfully “bloomed” in space, marking a significant milestone in the satellite’s deployment phase.

— The satellite will be launched on the GSLV-F16 and be put in a 734 km sun synchronous orbit — an orbit in which the satellite reaches over a place at the same time each day.

— The satellite will scan the entire globe every 12 days, providing a series of very detailed images of the Earth’s surface. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— NISAR, which stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, will provide an unprecedented view of the planet. Weighing 2,392 kg it will be the first satellite ever to observe the Earth in two frequencies — NASA’s L-band and ISRO’s S-band. Both the L-band and S-band radars can see through clouds, smoke, rain or fog, thus getting an unfiltered view of the Earth across all weathers and through day and night. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the S-400 missile system, consider the following statements:

1. It is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by the United States.

2. It detects any aerial threat in the area it has been tasked with protecting, calculates the threat’s path, and then dispatches a suitable missile to counter the threat.

3. It has a multifunction radar.

4. It has autonomous detection and targeting systems.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— Giving details about the losses sustained by Pakistan during Operation Sindoor for the first time, Air Chief Marshal A P Singh on Saturday (August 9) said the Indian Air Force (IAF) took down “at least” five Pakistani fighter jets and “one large aircraft”, and that the S-400 missile system, bought from Russia, had been a “game-changer”.

— The S-400 Triumf, also known as the SA-21 Growler in NATO, is a Russian-designed mobile surface-to-air missile system (SAM). It became active in 2007, and is regarded as the most hazardous operationally deployed modern long-range SAM in the world, surpassing the US-developed Terminal High Altitude Area Defence system (THAAD). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Simply put, its job is to detect any aerial threat in the area it is responsible for protecting, calculate the threat’s course, and then deploy a proper missile to counter the threat. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The S-400 has a multifunction radar, autonomous detection and targeting systems, anti-aircraft missile systems, launchers, and a command and control centre. It can be deployed within five minutes — US-made systems often take longer to deploy — and is capable of firing three types of missiles to create a layered defence. Hence, statements 3 and 4 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)-constituted committee to encourage the responsible and ethical adoption of Artificial Intelligence (AI) has recommended:

1. establishment of an AI innovation sandbox

2. development of indigenous financial sector-specific AI models

3. adaptive and enabling policies and adoption of an AI liability framework.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— To encourage the responsible and ethical adoption of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in the financial sector, a Reserve Bank of India (RBI)-constituted committee has recommended several measures, including the establishment of financial sector data infrastructure, data lifecycle governance, consumer protection and cyber security measures.

— These proposals were put forward by an RBI committee, set up in December last year, to develop a Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of Artificial Intelligence (FREE-AI) in the financial sector. The committee has given 26 suggestions which are based on six pillars – infrastructure, policy, capacity, governance, protection and assurance.

— The committee has recommended the establishment of an AI innovation sandbox, development of indigenous financial sector-specific AI models, adaptive and enabling policies and adoption of AI liability framework.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

With reference to the acquisition of arms in India, governed by Arms Rules, 2016 framed under the Arms Act, 1959, consider the following statements:

1. Licences for arms and ammunition in the permissible category, however, are governed by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

2. Licenses for arms and ammunition in the prohibited and restricted categories are directly governed by the Union Ministry of Defence.

Which of the statements mentioned above is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma on Thursday announced the launch of an online portal through which “indigenous citizens” living in “vulnerable and remote areas” can apply for arms licences.

— The acquisition of arms in India is governed by Arms Rules, 2016 framed under the Arms Act, 1959. “No person shall acquire, have in his possession, or carry any firearm or ammunition unless he holds in his behalf a licence issued in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder,” the 1959 Act says.

— Schedule I of the Arms Rules provides a list of prohibited, restricted and permitted arms and ammunition. Those in the prohibited and restricted categories are difficult, if not impossible, to acquire legally, and licences for such arms and ammunition are directly governed by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Licences for arms and ammunition in the permissible category, however, are governed by State governments. As such, rules for obtaining such arms can differ widely from state to state, and State governments have the authority to reframe licence requirements as long as their rules do not run afoul of the Centre’s Arms Rules. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992, recognised two different types of urban local bodies.

2. A metropolitan area is defined as an area having a population of above 10 lakh.

3. Municipalities are supposed to be elected directly by the people.

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The Supreme Court asked the Uttar Pradesh government to consider converting the Noida authority (NOIDA) into a metropolitan corporation to make it more citizen-centric. Noida is currently the only major city in India to not have an elected local government.

— The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992, recognised three different types of urban local bodies or municipalities: Nagar Palikas for areas transitioning from rural to urban; municipal councils for smaller urban areas; and municipal corporations for larger urban areas. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— A metropolitan area was defined in the Act as an area having a population of above 10 lakh. Noida had breached the 10 lakh-population mark way back in 2010. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Municipalities are supposed to be elected directly by the people and are the third tier of government in urban areas after the Union and state governments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— They are the equivalent of Panchayats, but in urban areas. They are supposed to look after public health, waste management, sanitation, provide urban facilities like parks and playgrounds, as well as amenities like street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences, among other functions.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Parliament recently passed a new income tax Bill to replace the six-decade-old Income Tax Act, 1961. With reference to this consider the following features listed below:

1. Taxpayers could only claim a refund if they had filed tax returns on or before the due date.

2. There will be nil Tax Collected at Source (TCS) on Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) remittances for education purposes financed by any financial institution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Parliament on Tuesday passed a new income tax Bill to replace the six-decade-old Income Tax Act, 1961. The new Bill removes redundant provisions and archaic language, and is likely to come into effect from April 1, 2026,

— The new Income-tax Bill, 2025 was first introduced in February, and then sent to a Parliament Select Committee. On August 12, the government introduced a new version, the Income-Tax (No.2) Bill, 2025, incorporating most recommendations of the Committee.

— The first draft of the Bill, introduced in February, had included a provision — Clause 263(1)(a)(ix) — that implied that taxpayers could only claim a refund if they had filed tax returns on or before the due date. The new version has removed this provision. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The new Bill also clarified that there will be nil TCS on Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) remittances for education purposes financed by any financial institution, a provision that had gone missing in the earlier version. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Consider the following statements with reference to Orbiting Carbon Observatories (OCOs).

1. They are a series of dedicated Earth remote sensing satellites that were designed specifically to observe atmospheric CO2 from space in order to better understand the characteristics of climate change.

2. OCOs as a part of a mission was launched by ISRO along with other international space agencies as a first step to monitor the pollution status in Indian cities due to carbon dioxide.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Trump administration has reportedly asked the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) to prepare to shut down two major satellites that monitor atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) and crop health. Hence, statement 2 is not true.

— It was unclear why the missions were being ended prematurely, NPR, which first reported on the plan last week, said.

— OCOs are a series of dedicated Earth remote sensing satellites that were designed specifically to observe atmospheric CO2 from space in order to better understand the characteristics of climate change. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

The LPG carrier Sahyadri, recently inducted by India, was built in which country?

(a) Russia

(b) Japan 

(c) South Korea

(d) Israel

Explanation

— A day before the 79th Independence day, the Shipping Ministry inducted Sahyadri, a very large gas carrier (VLGC), which will transport LPG between the Persian Gulf and India, securing a vital energy lifeline.

— The vessel, named after the mountain range along India’s western coast, is now part of the fleet of state-run Shipping Corporation of India Ltd. It is after a gap of eight years that an Indian public sector unit has acquired a VLGC.

— Sahyadri meets stringent international safety and environmental standards, said a ministry note. “The South Korea built 225-metre-long, 36-metre-wide carrier can transport up to 82,000 cubic metres of LPG. The induction raises SCI’s deadweight tonnage to 5.2 million and its owned fleet to 57 vessels, including crude and product tankers, bulk carriers, container ships, gas carriers and offshore vessels,” it said.

Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

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