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UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 07 to September 13, 2025

UPSC Prelims Weekly Current Affairs MCQs: Kickstart your UPSC Prelims prep early—begin with current affairs for a strong foundation. Brush up your current affairs knowledge with this week's top 10 questions and consolidate your UPSC-CSE preparation. Find answers along with explanations.

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 07 to September 13, 2025Brush up your current affairs knowledge with this week's top 10 questions and consolidate your UPSC-CSE preparation. Find question on the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 in today's quiz. (representative image)

UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.

🚨Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for August 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

QUESTION 1

With reference to the GI tag, consider the following statements:

1. GI tags are issued per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (GI Act)

2. Maharashtra is the leading GI state with the maximum-tagged products.

3. India does not have GI-tagged Natural products.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Punjab Food Processing Department is exploring the possibility of securing a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Amritsari Kulcha, the beloved tandoori bread of the holy city.

— A GI tag is a label given to products that have a unique quality, reputation, or characteristic due to their specific geographical origin, such as a region, town or country.

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— GI tag identifies goods originating from a specific location and having distinct nature, quality, and characteristics linked to that location. GI tags are issued per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (GI Act). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— India is home to 605 GI-tagged products across the categories, which include 342 handicraft products, 197 agricultural products, 18 Manufactured goods, 45 food products, and 3 Natural products. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Uttar Pradesh is the leading GI state with 74 GI-tagged products. Tamil Nadu leads second with 69 GI-tagged products. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.ibef.org)

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. In the last 27 months, this state has witnessed prolonged periods of violence and displacement, a collapse of law and order, the strengthening of armed groups, a Lok Sabha election, and the imposition of President’s Rule.

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2. The state’s porous international border with Myanmar faces the challenge of unregulated illegal immigration.

The above mentioned statements refer to:

(a) Mizoram

(b) Manipur

(c) Nagaland

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi will fly to Manipur to interact with internally displaced people in Churachandpur and Imphal. It will be the Prime Minister’s first trip to the state since the ethnic conflict between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities began in May 2023.

— In the 27 months since, Manipur has witnessed prolonged periods of violence and displacement, a collapse of law and order, the strengthening of armed groups, a Lok Sabha election, the imposition of President’s Rule, and, recently, a gradual ebb in the violence.

— More than 280 relief camps across Manipur house some 57,000 internally displaced people, many of whom have been living there for over two years now. Thousands of Kuki-Zo people have been displaced from Imphal and other towns in the valley, whereas Meiteis have been displaced from the border town of Moreh and hill towns such as Kangpokpi and Churachandpur.

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— Through the course of the conflict, the boundaries between valley and hill districts have hardened, and individuals from neither community have been able to safely travel in areas where the other community is in majority.

— The state’s porous international border with Myanmar has been a prickly issue in context of the conflict. Meitei stakeholders have continuously alleged that unregulated illegal immigration of Chin people from Myanmar — who share a common ethnicity with the Kuki-Zo — has been a major cause for volatility in the region.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to Operation Polo, consider the following statements:

1. It was the military operation launched by India to annex the state of Goa.

2. It was led by General J N Chaudhri.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

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— September 13 marks the 77th anniversary of Operation Polo, the military operation launched by newly independent India to annex the state of Hyderabad. Led by the General J N Chaudhri, Operation Polo lasted less than four days and brought to heels the Nizam who had been resolute in his decision to not accede to India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— Among the 500-odd princely states of India, the state of Hyderabad was one of the largest. It was spread over more than 80,000 square miles and inhabited by approximately 16 million people, belonging to three separate linguistic groups — Telugu, Kannada and Marathi. While the majority of its population was Hindu, its ruler was a Muslim, who held the hereditary title of the Nizam.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) IDs, consider the following statements:

1. The APAAR ID simplifies the processes of credit recognition and transfer right from the school level.

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2. It empowers students to accumulate and store their academic accomplishments.

3. It is a 10-digit identifier for students in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Amidst mounting complaints from schools over mismatched Aadhaar data, parental consent issues, and technical glitches, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has decided to ease the mandatory requirement of APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) IDs for board exam candidates this year.

— APAAR empowers students to accumulate and store their academic accomplishments, facilitating seamless transitions between institutions for the pursuit of further education. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The APAAR ID simplifies the processes of credit recognition and transfer right from the school level, thereby streamlining academic progression and recognition of prior learning. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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— APAAR IDs are unique, 12-digit identifiers for students in India, part of the “One Nation, One Student ID” initiative under the National Education Policy 2020. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: apaar.education.gov.in)

QUESTION 5

The development of the ‘Koti Tirth corridor’ has been approved recently. It will be constructed at:

(a) Rameswaram (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Jagannathpur (Odisha)

(c) Dwarka (Gujarat)

(d) Divar island (Goa)

Explanation

— Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawant said the Cabinet has granted approval for development of a ‘Koti Tirth corridor’, where a new Saptakoteshwar temple – destroyed during Portuguese rule in the state — will be constructed at the old historic site at Goa’s Divar island.

— According to historical records, the site of Saptakoteshwar temple at Naroa in Divar existed during the Kadamba dynasty (10th to 14th century). The rock cut tank of the temple was called ‘Koti-Tirth’. The temple was destroyed during the Bahmani rule and it was subsequently rebuilt in 1391 by a minister in the Vijayanagar kingdom. The Portuguese destroyed the temple in the 16th century. The deity’s idol was shifted across the river to Bicholim, where Shivaji established a new temple in 1668.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following statements:

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1. Longitudes are horizontal lines that indicate the north-south distance of a place from the equator.

2. Latitudes are vertical north-south lines that determine the east-west distance of a place from the prime meridian.

3. Any location can be described by the point where a specific latitude and longitude intersect.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— India’s next Census, which will be conducted in 2027 after a delay of six years, will include many firsts – it will be the first Census to be conducted digitally; for the first time, people will have the option of self-enumeration; and members of individual castes will be counted for the first time since 1931.

— Also, all buildings across India will be geotagged – never before has such an exercise been undertaken as part of India’s decennial population Census.

— Geotagging is the process of marking the latitude-longitude coordinates of buildings on a Geographic Information System (GIS) map. GIS is a computer system that captures, checks, and displays data on specific positions on the surface of the Earth.

— Latitudes and longitudes are imaginary lines that are used to determine the location of a place on the globe. Latitudes (or ‘parallels’) are horizontal lines that indicate the north-south distance of a place from the equator; longitudes (or ‘meridians’) are vertical north-south lines that determine the east-west distance of a place from the prime meridian, which passes through Greenwich, UK. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— Together, lines of latitude and longitude imagine a grid on the surface of the Earth. Any location can be described by the point where a specific latitude and longitude intersect. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Gyan Bharatam Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The mission intends to cover more than one crore manuscripts.

2. It is part of the Ministry of Culture.

3. It replaces the existing National Manuscripts Mission.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— With the Rs 400-crore Gyan Bharatam project, the government is aiming to create an institution on the lines of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) for the preservation and interpretation of India’s manuscripts. “What ASI is for monuments, Gyan Bharatam will be for manuscripts,” said Union Culture Secretary Vivek Aggarwal.

— The first-ever international manuscript heritage conference — ‘Reclaiming India’s knowledge legacy through manuscript heritage’ — coincides with the 132nd anniversary of Swami Vivekananda’s historic address at the Parliament of the World’s Religions held in Chicago in 1893.

— Launched as the ‘Gyan Bharatam Mission’, it intends to cover more than one crore manuscripts, officials say, adding that while the project will be headquartered in New Delhi, as part of the Ministry of Culture, regional centres will be set up across all states to ensure seamless coordination. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Gyan Bharatam replaces the existing National Manuscripts Mission, which was launched in 2003, aiming to digitise all manuscripts in the country, but was moving at a slow pace. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements about the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:

1. Schedule I lists species requiring the highest level of protection due to their endangered status.

2. Schedule II lists animals that do not need protection and can be hunted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Prompt ordering killing of an animal responsible in case of attack on human life, declaring wild boar as vermin, relocating Schedule II animals, and stripping bonnet macaque monkeys of their highest level of protection – these are some of the key amendments to the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, ratified by the Kerala Cabinet Saturday.

— To address the bonnet macaque threat, the Bill proposes to remove that animal from the category of Schedule I to Schedule II. Until then, the chief wildlife warden could order capturing and relocating of monkeys causing mayhem in human habitations.

— Schedule I lists species requiring the highest level of protection due to their endangered status. It was in 2022 that macaque monkeys were moved to Schedule II. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— On the other hand, Schedule II lists animals that need lower protection that Schedule I but can’t be hunted except under some circumstances, such as when they pose threats to human life or have incurable disease. However, their trade is prohibited. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Earlier this year, Kerala had sought the Union government’s nod to kill wild animals that pose a threat to human life and properties. The state wants the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 amended so it can be allowed to kill wild animals that foray into human habitats. However, the Centre had turned down the demand on the ground that the state can address the issue with the existing norms.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Which of the following Tiger Reserves is located in the northern Western Ghats?

(a) Sahyadri Tiger Reserve

(b) Melghat Tiger Reserve

(c) Pench Tiger Reserve

(d) Palamau Tiger Reserve

Explanation

— The Union Environment Ministry has approved the capture of eight tigers from the Tadoba-Andhari and Pench reserves for their translocation to the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve in western Maharashtra, a move aimed at reviving the big cat’s population in the northern Western Ghats.

— Key among these conditions are the provision of adequate veterinary care at all stages of capture and translocation, and care to prevent post-capture complications. The Wildlife Division also told Maharashtra officials to ensure minimal trauma to tigers during the operation.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to ‘literacy’, consider the following statements:

1. The Ministry of Education defines literacy as “the ability to read, write, and compute with comprehension.

2. It defines ‘full literacy’ as “achieving 99% literacy in a State/UT”.

3. There is only one state/U.T which has achieved full literacy.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Earlier this week, Himachal Pradesh was declared to be a ‘fully literate’ state, becoming the fifth such state/Union Territory in India after Goa, Ladakh, Mizoram, and Tripura. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— None of these, however, boast 100% literacy. Himachal claims to have a literacy rate of 99.3%, Goa 99.72%, Mizoram 98.2%, Tripura 95.6%, and Ladakh 97%.

— The Ministry of Education defines literacy as “the ability to read, write, and compute with comprehension i.e to identify, understand, interpret and create, along with critical life skills such as digital literacy, financial literacy etc.” It defines ‘full literacy’ as “achieving 95% literacy in a State/UT”. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The Ministry communicated these definitions to states/UTs last August. It felt the need to define these terms for ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society), a literacy programme for people over 15 who may not have attended school.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 31 to September 06, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 24 to August 30, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 17 to August 23, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 10 to August 16, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 03 to August 09, 2025

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