UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 07 to July 13, 2024

1. It is a weather phenomenon where a low-pressure system in the atmosphere traps warm air for a short period of time.

2. It leads to less evaporation and reduces the likelihood of the formation of rain clouds.

3. Jet stream plays a role in the formation of heat domes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— A blistering heatwave began last week and has affected the whole western United States. Nearly 75 million people are on heat alert, and temperature records are plummeting.

— California was the worst affected, with at least a dozen cities breaking all-time high-temperature records. The searing temperatures and dry conditions are caused by a heat dome focused over California.

— A heat dome is a weather phenomenon where a high-pressure system in the atmosphere traps warm air like a lid on a pot, for an extended period of time. As the warm air is not able to rise upward, the sky remains clear — clouds are formed under the opposite circumstances as the rising warm air cools down, and the water in it condenses out. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The high-pressure system allows more sunlight to reach the earth, which results in more warming and drying of soil. This leads to less evaporation and reduces the likelihood of the formation of rain clouds. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The longer the heat dome remains in one location, the warmer circumstances will become with each passing day. Heatwaves, while caused by heat domes, can also occur without them.

— The formation of a heat dome is linked to the activity of the jet stream, which is a high-altitude band of fast-moving air that typically aids in the movement of weather systems across the Earth’s surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Typically, the jet stream follows a wave-like pattern, flowing from north to south and back north. When these waves grow in size and length, they move slowly and occasionally become immobile. This happens when a high-pressure system becomes trapped in place, resulting in a heat dome.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle, consider the following statements:

1. It is Russia’s highest civilian honour.

2. Recently, S. Jaishankar was awarded this award during his visit to the country.

3. It can not be awarded to heads of foreign states for outstanding services.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— During his visit to Russia, Prime Minister Narendra Modi received the Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle, Russia’s highest civilian honour. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The PM received the award in 2019 for “exceptional services in promoting special & privileged strategic partnership between Russia and India and friendly relations between the Russian and Indian peoples.”

— The award is given to prominent government and public figures, military leaders, and outstanding representatives of science, culture, art, and various sectors of the economy for exceptional services to Russia.

— It can also be awarded to heads of foreign states for outstanding services to the Russian Federation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Its name comes from Saint Andrew, who is believed to be one of the apostles or 12 original followers of Jesus.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

The Upper Siang project was recently in the news. The construction of this dam will submerge more than 300 villages belonging to the Adi tribe. The project is dedicated to which state?

(a) Assam

(b) Sikkim

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Tripura

Explanation

— Two anti-dam activists from Arunachal Pradesh were placed in preventive arrest ahead of Union Power Minister Manohar Lal Khattar’s visit to the state.

— The police claimed to have received reports that the couple was “likely to attempt to cause a public order issue”. The activists, on the other hand, stated that they only wanted to provide the minister with a memorandum on the contentious proposed Upper Siang Multipurpose Storage Project.

— The Upper Siang project is a proposed 11,000 megawatt hydropower project on the Siang river in the Upper Siang district of Arunachal Pradesh.

— The Siang originates near Mount Kailash in Tibet, where it goes by the name of Tsangpo. It traverses more than 1,000 km eastward, before forming a horseshoe bend around the towering Namcha Barwa peak, and enters Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang.

— The proposed Siang mega dam threatens our ancestral abode that hosts delicate ecosystems, wildlife habitats, and biodiversity.

— Activists are also concerned about the communities that will be displaced due to the project, which they say will submerge more than 300 villages belonging to the Adi tribe, including the Upper Siang district headquarters of Yingkiong.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The term “Apophis” was recently in the news. It refers to:

(a) Comet

(b) Asteroid

(c) Jupiter’s Moon

(d) Quasar

Explanation

— S Somanath, Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), stated that “we should be able to go and meet” the asteroid Apophis when it passes Earth at a distance of 32,000 kilometres in 2029.

— Somanath’s words reflect ISRO’s intention to develop capabilities in planetary defence, something it has not previously pursued. A trip to investigate an asteroid would be the first step towards developing a strategy to prevent celestial bodies from colliding with Earth, potentially with catastrophic results.

— When Apophis was found in 2004, astronomers predicted a 2.7% risk of colliding with Earth, the highest probability of any big asteroid hitting Earth in recent history.

— Initial observations indicated that if not in 2029, Apophis could strike Earth in 2036 or 2068.

— Because of the asteroid’s size (it is around 450 metres wide at its widest point), an impact with Earth may cause significant devastation. Some experts compared the potential impact to the disaster that wiped out dinosaurs and most other forms of life approximately 66 million years ago.

— Subsequent investigations revealed that these initial fears were baseless; the Earth was not at jeopardy from Apophis in 2029, 2036, or 2068. The asteroid will approach closest to Earth in 2029, passing at a distance of 32,000 km. This is close enough to be visible with the naked eye, and it is also the distance at which some communication satellites function.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following:

1. Kamov helicopters

2. C-17 Globemaster

3. Su-30MKI fighters

4. MH-60R Seahawks

5. T-90 tanks

Which of the defence equipment given above is part of the India-Russia agreement?

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

— The visit to Russia is a signal of New Delhi’s commitment to its partnership with Moscow, as well as an emphasis on this foreign policy objective.

— India’s ties with Russia date back seven decades. As India has expanded its partnerships in a multipolar world, the India-Russia relationship has stalled in certain sectors and weakened in others. Defence is by far the strongest component of the strategic alliance, with nuclear and space cooperation also playing a vital role.

— During the Cold War, the USSR was India’s primary supplier of defensive equipment, and it is claimed that 60 to 70 per cent of India’s defence equipment is still Russian and Soviet in origin.

— Defence cooperation has developed from a buyer-seller model to one that includes cooperative R&D, co-development, and joint production.

— India and Russia have inked deals to deliver S-400 Triumf mobile surface-to-air missile systems, MiG-29 fighter planes, and Kamov helicopters, as well as licence manufacturing of T-90 tanks, Su-30MKI fighters, AK-203 assault weapons, and BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles. Admiral Gorshkov was the former Soviet and Russian vessel that served as one of the Indian Navy’s two aircraft carriers, the INS Vikramaditya.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

The Saffir-Simpson Scale is used to measure intensity of:

(a) Earthquakes

(b) Tsunami

(c) Floods

(d) Hurricanes

Explanation

— Hurricane Beryl became the earliest storm on record during the Atlantic hurricane season to have reached the highest Category 5 classification.

— Hurricanes are classified using the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale into five categories (Category 1 to Category 5) based on their sustained wind speeds.

— While Category 1 storms have winds ranging from 119 to 153 kmph, the strongest Category 5 hurricanes have winds of 252 kmph or higher.

— Storms that reach Category 3 or above are classified as big hurricanes because they have the potential to cause severe damage.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN), consider the following statements:

1. It would replace the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).

2. As per the Telecom Act, contributions made by telecom companies towards the DBN will first be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI).

3. The States will be responsible for depositing the collected funds to the DBN from time to time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has announced draft guidelines to operationalize the Digital Bharat Nidhi, in a new endeavour by the central government to increase cellular access in rural areas.

— Digital Bharat Nidhi would replace the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), which is a pool of funds generated by a 5 per cent Universal Service Levy charged upon all the telecom fund operators on their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to the Telecom Act, contributions paid by telecom firms to the Digital Bharat Nidhi shall first be deposited to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). The CFI gets all of the government’s revenues, including loan proceeds and loan repayments. This fund is also used by the government to pay for expenses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Centre will deposit the collected funds to the DBN from time to time. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The DBN funds will be used to support universal service by promoting access to and delivery of telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas; to fund research and development of telecommunication services, technologies, and products; to support pilot projects, consultancy assistance, and advisory support for improving connectivity; and to introduce new telecommunication services, technologies, and products.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

The term “FLiRT and “LB.1” were recently in the news. They correspond to:

(a) India AI Mission

(b) Ghost particles

(c) New Covid-19 variants

(d) Basmati rice variety

Explanation

— The arrival of summer has sparked concerns about the recurrence of Covid-19, as SARS-CoV-2, the coronavirus that causes Covid-19, continues to change.

— Concerns have been raised about a collection of variants known as FLiRT, which are named for the technical nomenclature of their mutations, as well as the LB.1 variant, which has an additional FLiRT mutation.

— The FLiRT strains are sub-variants of Omicron, which predominated in India’s third wave of infections in January 2022. FLiRT strains are responsible for more than 60% of Covid-19 cases in the United States, with a variation known as KP.3.

— FLiRT refers to a set of variants that includes KP.2, JN.1.7, and any other variants beginning with KP or JN. They are descended from the JN.1 variety, which dominated infections in the United States between late 2023 and early 2024.

— The LB.1 strain, a FLiRT group mutation, was responsible for 17.5% of Covid-19 cases in the United States when the summer began. FLiRT and LB.1 are highly transmissible.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Vizhinjam sea port, consider the following statements:

1. It is the international deep-water trans-shipment port located in Tamil Nadu.

2. The port can offer a viable alternative and option to the major shipping lanes to mitigate the disruption in the global supply chain.

3. The port has deep-draft capabilities.

4. This port has been developed in public-private partnership (PPP) mode.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal said that the international deep-water trans-shipment port at Vizhinjam here will offer a “stiff competition” to similar ports in Colombo and Singapore.

— Vizhinjam sea port is located in Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Vizhinjam sea port with its “locational advantage” of being close to the international shipping lanes and its “deep-draft capabilities” is a preferred option for trans-shipment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— This port will offer a viable alternative and option to the major shipping lanes to mitigate the disruption in the global supply chain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The port project also highlights how a successful public-private partnership (PPP) between the Centre, state governments, and the private sector “can unleash the immense potential of our maritime sector”. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— The port is outfitted with cutting-edge equipment, advanced automation, and an information technology system. Vizhinjam will be India’s first semi-automated port, with a full commission scheduled for September or October 2024.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Consider the following countries:

1. Sri Lanka

2. Nepal

3. Bhutan

4. Indonesia

5. Thailand

6. China

Which of the countries given above are part of the BIMSTEC grouping?

(a) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi reaffirmed India’s commitment to the seven-nation BIMSTEC grouping, emphasising its importance as an engine of economic and social development.

— The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) brings together seven countries from South and Southeast Asia for diverse collaboration.

— Beside India, the BIMSTEC includes Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.

— The PM had fruitful discussions with the group of ministers on further strengthening the regional cooperation in diverse areas including connectivity, energy, trade, health, agriculture, science, security and people to people exchanges.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

‘Project 2025’ recently seen in news is related to:

(a) BRICS Summit

(b) US Presidential Elections

(c) COP 29

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— A policy wishlist is making waves in the United States. The Mandate for Leadership 2025: The Conservative Promise was published in April 2023 by the ‘2025 Presidential Transition Project’, referred to in short as ‘Project 2025’.

— The 900-page document containing a plethora of extremely contentious policy proposals, has come under the spotlight ahead of next week’s Republican National Convention, where Donald Trump will formally be nominated as party’s presidential candidate for the November elections.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Vienna was under Nazi occupation during World War II but after the end of the war, it was divided into four sectors by the four countries. Which of the following was not among the four countries?

(a) US

(b) UK

(c) France

(d) Italy

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi chose the neutral ground of Vienna to send a message to both Moscow and the West. The India-Austria relationship was born in trust and friendship, and holds great promise for the future.

— Vienna was under Nazi occupation during World War II. After the end of the war, it was divided into four sectors by the US, the UK, France, and the Soviet Union, supervised by the Allied Commission. The Allies occupied Austria for a decade after the war ended.

— In 1955, the four occupying powers signed the Austrian State Treaty with the Austrian government to establish Austria as an independent state. The Soviet Union demanded that Austria, which is located strategically between capitalist western Europe and the communist bloc in the east of the continent, maintain neutrality on the model of Switzerland, with the four powers pledging to the integrity and inviolability of Austrian territory.

— The 1955 treaty, which was ratified by all countries, thus bound Austria to neutrality. The constitution of Austria prohibits entering into military alliances, and the establishment of foreign military bases on Austrian territory.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to Sports, consider the following statements seen recently in news:

1. Mary Kom is the Chef-de-Mission of the Indian contingent to compete in the Paris 2024 Olympic Games.

2. India lifted its second T20 World Cup after a gap of 17 years in the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024 final against South Africa.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Four-time Olympian and 2012 Olympic Games men’s 10m Air Rifle bronze medalist Gagan Narang was on Monday chosen by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to replace Mary Kom as the Chef-de-Mission of the Indian contingent to compete in the Paris 2024 Olympic Games beginning on July 26. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— India lifted its second T20 World Cup after a gap of 17 years in the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024 final against South Africa. Earlier, India won the T20 World Cup in 2007. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

‘Hannibal Directive’ recently seen in news is related to:

(a) Environment

(b) Defence

(c) Trade

(d) Sports

Explanation

— As Hamas raided southern Israel on October 7 last year, the Israel Defence Forces (IDF) activated the “Hannibal Directive”, a purported operational doctrine of using maximum force to ensure no soldiers are captured, even if it means sacrificing military and civilian lives, a media investigation has found.

— The Hannibal Directive, also known as Hannibal Procedure and Hannibal Protocol, was used from the first hours of the attack in at least three military facilities that Hamas infiltrated, the Israeli newspaper Haaretz reported on Sunday (July 7).

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to CHAPEA mission, consider the following statements:

1. It is a series of analog missions that will simulate year-long stays on the surface of Mars.

2. The knowledge gained from the analog missions will allow SpaceX to characterise the risk of the planned exploration food system design in relation to crew health and performance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— On July 6, four volunteer crew members of NASA’s Mars simulation mission emerged after a year of living in a habitat replicating the Red Planet. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— A part of NASA’s Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog (CHAPEA) project, it was the first of three planned simulations to understand the challenges Mars poses for space explorers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 30 to July 06, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 23 to June 29, 2024

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