UPSC Essentials: Daily Subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 3)

Each day, we will cover one new subject. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress. Come back tomorrow to solve the MCQs on History, Culture and Social Issues. Don’t miss checking the answers and explanations at the end of the quiz.

QUESTION 1

Which of the following is/are criteria for a party to become a state party?

1. At least 3 per cent of the total number of seats or three seats, whichever is more, in the last Assembly election.

2. At least one MP for every 25 members or any fraction allotted to the state in the Lok Sabha.

3. At least 4 per cent vote-share in the last Assembly election and have at least 2 MLAs.

4. At least 8 per cent of the total valid votes in the last Assembly election or Lok Sabha election from the state. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(c) 2, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

QUESTION 2

With reference to Indian Citizenship, consider the following statements:

1. A person born in India on or after January 26, 1950, but before July 1, 1987, is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.

2. A person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, but before December 10, 1992, is a citizen of India by registration, if his father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth.

3. India allows the provision of dual citizenship.

4. Taking the citizenship of another country automatically results in cancellation of Indian citizenship.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

QUESTION 3

Consider the following statements with respect to Armed Force Special Power Act (AFSPA):

1. The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India movement in 1942.

2. The act provides for special powers for the armed forces that can be imposed only by the Governor of that State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

QUESTION 4

The border dispute over Belagavi, Karwar and Nipani are associated with:

(a) Kerala and Karnataka

(b) Karnataka and Goa

(c) Maharashtra and Karnataka

(d) Maharashtra and Goa

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Rajya Sabha, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) It empowers Parliament to make laws in respect of any matter enumerated in the State List.

(b) It has exclusive power in the creation of All India Services.

(c) There are twelve members nominated by the President of India from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service.

(d) In the absence of chairman, the House may decide about any other member present to preside.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following statements about collegium system:

1. Chief Justice of India along with four senior-most Supreme Court judges recommend appointments and transfers of judges.

2. This system found its root from the constitution of India.

3. A High Court Collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and the four senior most judges of that court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

QUESTION 7

Consider the following statements about  Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA):

1. They regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations.

2. It was enacted during the Emergency in 1976.

3. FCRA registration is valid for 10 years.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

QUESTION 8

Which Article of Constitution of India is related to Untouchability?

(a) Article 18

(b) Article 17

(c) Article 16

(d) Article 20

ANSWERS TO MCQs

1. (a)

FYI:

— The Election Commission recognised the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) as a national party. It revoked the status of the All India Trinamool Congress, Nationalist Congress Party (NCP), and the Communist Party of India (CPI).

— The Commission also revoked the state party status granted to RLD in Uttar Pradesh, BRS in Andhra Pradesh, PDA in Manipur, PMK in Puducherry, RSP in West Bengal, and MPC in Mizoram.

— To be recognised as a state party, a party needs:

1. at least 6 per cent vote-share in the last Assembly election and have at least 2 MLAs or 6 per cent vote-share in the last Lok Sabha elections from that state and at least one MP from that state.

2. At least 3 per cent of the total number of seats or three seats, whichever is more, in the last Assembly elections.; or

3. At least one MP for every 25 members or any fraction allotted to the state in the Lok Sabha; or

4. At least 8 per cent of the total valid votes in the last Assembly election or Lok Sabha election from the state.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

2. (b)

FYI:

— Indian citizenship can be acquired by birth, descent, registration, and naturalization.

— India does not allow dual citizenship, and taking up the citizenship of another country automatically results in the cancellation of Indian citizenship. Hence, statement 3 is not correct and statement 4 is correct.

— The conditions and procedure for the acquisition of Indian citizenship as per the provision of the Citizenship Act, 1955 are given below:

By Birth

— A person born in India on or after January 26, 1950, but before July 1, 1987, is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— A person born in India on or after July 1, 1987, but before December 3, 2004, is

considered a citizen of India by birth if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

— A person born in India on or after December 3, 2004, is considered a citizen of India by birth if both the parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of his birth.

By Descent

— A person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, but before  December 10, 1992 is a citizen of India by descent, if his father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— A person born outside India on or after December 10, 1992, but before December 3, 2004, is considered a citizen of India if either of his parents was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth.

— A person born outside India on or after December 3, 2004, shall not be a citizen of India unless the parents declare that the minor does not hold a passport of another country and his birth is registered at an Indian consulate within one year of the date of birth or with the permission of the Central Government, after the expiry of the said period.

By Registration

— Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.

— Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in any country or place outside undivided India.

— Persons who are married to a citizen of India and who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.

— Minor children whose both parents are Indian citizens.

— Persons of full age whose both parents are registered as citizens of India.

— Persons of full age and capacity who have been registered as an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) for five years and residing in India for one year.

By Naturalisation

— Citizenship of India by naturalization can be acquired by a foreigner (not illegal migrant) who is ordinarily resident in India for twelve years (throughout the period of twelve months immediately preceding the date of application and for eleven years in the aggregate in the fourteen years preceding the twelve months) and other qualifications as specified in Third Schedule to the Act.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Other Source: indiancitizenshiponline.nic.in

3. (a)

FYI:

— The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India movement in 1942.

— After Independence, it was decided to retain the Act, which was first brought in as ordnance and then notified as an Act in 1958.

— AFSPA has been imposed on the Northeast states, Jammu and Kashmir, and Punjab during the militancy years. Punjab was the first state from where it was repealed, followed by Tripura and Meghalaya. It remains in force in Nagaland, Manipur, Assam, J&K, and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.

— AFSPA provides special powers for the armed forces that can be imposed by the Centre or the Governor of a state, on the state or parts of it, after it is declared “disturbed’’ under Section 3 of the Act.

— It allows armed forces to open fire against any person in contravention of the law or carrying arms and ammunition.

— The Act provides for powers to arrest individuals without warrants, on the basis of “reasonable suspicion”, and also search premises without warrants.

— There can be no prosecution or legal proceedings against them without the prior approval of the Centre.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

4. (c)

FYI:

— The border dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka is intensifying, with both states hardening their stance. Both Houses of the Maharashtra Assembly passed a unanimous resolution to support a legal battle to resolve the dispute which came just days after the Karnataka Assembly passed a resolution reiterating Karnataka’s position on the issue.

— The border dispute over Belagavi, Karwar and Nipani in North Karnataka is long-standing. When state boundaries were redrawn on linguistic lines as per the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, Belagavi became part of the erstwhile Mysore state.

— Maharashtra claims that parts of Belagavi, where Marathi is the dominant language, should remain in Maharashtra.

— In October 1966, the Centre set up the Mahajan Commission, led by former Chief Justice of India Mehr Chand Mahajan, to resolve the border dispute in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Kerala. 

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. (d)

FYI:

— Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Assemblies of States and Union territories in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

— He should be a citizen of India above 30 years of age and possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by the law of Parliament.

— There are twelve members nominated by the President of India from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.

— Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber that represents States/Union Territories, enjoys certain special powers:

(a) to empower Parliament to make laws in respect of any matter enumerated in the State List in the national interest by adopting a resolution to this effect (article 249),

(b) creation of All India Services (article 312) and

(c) approving Proclamations (issued under Article 352 or Article 356 or Article 360) if the Lok Sabha stands dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for the approval of the Proclamation by Parliament.

— Under Rule 8 of the Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), the Chairman, Rajya Sabha nominates six members on the panel of Vice-Chairmen, one of whom presides over the House in the absence of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman. When neither the Chairman nor the Deputy Chairman and none of the Vice Chairmen is present to preside, the House may decide about any other member present to preside.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Other Source: rajyasabha.nic.in

6. (a)

FYI:

— In the collegium system, the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most Supreme Court judges recommend appointments and transfers of judges.

— A High Court Collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and the two seniormost judges of that court.

— The Collegium system is not rooted in the Constitution. Instead, it has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court.

— In this system, the government’s role is limited to getting an inquiry conducted by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme Court.

— The government can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the Collegium’s choices, but, if the Collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under Constitution Bench judgments, to appoint them to the post.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

7. (d)

FYI:

— The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organizations.

— The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”.

— The FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be:

(a) Registered under the Act.

(b) To open a bank account for the receipt of foreign funds in the State Bank of India, Delhi.

(c) To utilise those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act.

— They are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.

— The Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of the legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.

— FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations with definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programmes.

— FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration.

— Under the FCRA, the applicant should not be fictitious or benami, and should not have been prosecuted or convicted for indulging in activities aimed at conversion through inducement or force, either directly or indirectly, from one religious faith to another.

— The applicant should also not have been prosecuted for or convicted of creating communal tension or disharmony; should not have been found guilty of diversion or misutilisation of funds. and should not be engaged or likely to be engaged in the propagation of sedition.

— The MHA is required to approve or reject the application within 90 days. In case of failure to process the application in the given time, the MHA is expected to inform the NGO of the reasons for the same.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

8. (b)

FYI:

— Article 17 – Abolition of Untouchability: It is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.

— The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Other Source: http://www.hrw.org

— Edited by Manas Srivastava

Previous Quizzes:

Polity and Governance (Week 1)

Polity and Governance (Week 2)

History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 1)

History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 2)

UPSC Weekly Quiz (Current Affairs)

UPSC Essentials: Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 2)

Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 1)

International Relations (Week 1)

International Relations (Week 2)

International Relations (Week 3)

Tomorrow’s Quiz: History, Culture and Social Issues

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