UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 28 to October 04, 2025

QUESTION 1

Which of the following indicators are included in the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)?

1. Nutrition

2. Child and adolescent mortality

3. Drinking water

4. Unemployment

5. Pollution exposure

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) All of the above

Explanation

— As far as the government is concerned, poverty lines are seemingly a thing of the past. Based on the global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), the Indian MPI looks at poverty through three lenses: health, education, and standard of living. These are represented by 12 indicators: nutrition, child and adolescent mortality, maternal health, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, housing, electricity, assets, and bank account.

— The global MPI does not take maternal health and bank accounts into consideration while measuring poverty.

— MPI does not include Unemployment and Pollution exposure.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

The terms ‘American Grip’, ‘Finnish Grip’, and ‘Fork Grip’ are related to:

(a) Shot Put

(b) Javelin throw

(c) Golf

(d) Badminton

Explanation

— Javelin throw is one of the most technically challenging track and field disciplines. A javelin thrower’s movement can be broken down into several phases and every tiny action matters. Athletes seek to optimise their actions during each phase to hurl the javelin further into the horizon.

— It all begins with the grip. The athlete holds a synthetic/cotton cord wrapped around the javelin at the centre of gravity. There are three popular grips.

— American grip: The thumb (inner side, closer to the throwing shoulder) and the index finger (outer side) are placed at the top of the cord while the remaining three fingers are placed around it. The index finger is key. “Make sure the pointing (index) finger is tied to the grip (cord) to transfer most of the energy,” 2016 Olympic champion Thomas Röhler explains in an YouTube video titled ‘How to throw the javelin’.

— Finnish grip: Finland was once a powerhouse in javelin throw: till date, it has won 22 of the 81 medals in men’s javelin at the Olympic Games. The Finns developed a grip in which the index finger is placed under the javelin, just above the cord. India’s Neeraj Chopra, who won the gold medal in Tokyo 2020 (held in 2021) and a silver in Paris 2024, usually opts for this grip.

— V-grip or fork grip: The top of the cord is gripped by the index and the middle finger, while the ring finger and the little finger go around the cord. “The reason people with elbow problems use it is because you always have the javelin on top of (above) the elbow,” Röhler said.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

The dispute over Sir Creek was first officially addressed by the:

(a) Government of Bombay in 1914

(b) Government of India in 1925

(c) British Political Agent in Sindh in 1910

(d) Kutch State Administration in 1912

Explanation

— The Sir Creek dispute stems from the varying interpretations of colonial-era boundary lines by both the nations. The matter is compounded by the changing course of the Indus over the years.

— The dispute was first officially addressed by the Government of Bombay in 1914. It resolve a dispute between the Sindh and Kutchh regions in the then undivided India. The conflict arose next nearly four decades after the Partition and gained steam after the 1965 Indo-Pak war.

— After Pakistan was defeated in the 1965 war, the Rann of Kutchh (and Sir Creek) border dispute went to a UN Tribunal. Under the 1965 ‘Agreements for the Determination of the Border’, both nations agreed to the establishment of a tribunal to give a final determination of the boundary.

— A study by the Durham University says the tribunal agreed to 90% of India’s claims in the Rann of Kutchh region and conceded only small sectors to Pakistan.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following metals is not among the Polymetallic Sulphides (PMS)?

1. Copper

2. Zinc

3. Gold

4. Magnesium

5. Potassium

6. Silver

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 6

(d) 2, 4 and 6

Explanation

— India signed a contract with the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for exclusive rights to explore Polymetallic Sulphides (PMS) in the Carlsberg Ridge in the Indian Ocean.

— India has become the first country in the world to have two contracts with the ISA for PMS exploration. It now commands the largest area allocated in the international seabed for PMS exploration — a scientific achievement with strategic importance.

— Polymetallic Sulphides (PMS) are seabed mineral deposits that are rich in copper (Cu), zinc (Zn), lead (Pb), nickel (Ni), cobalt (Co), iron (Fe), silver (Ag), and trace amounts of gold (Au).

— Metals that are largely missing in PMS include alkali and alkaline earth metals such as magnesium (Mg) and potassium (K), which do not produce sulphide minerals under hydrothermal conditions.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Government has announced two cross-border railway projects which will connect Bhutan with the bordering areas of Assam and West Bengal.

2. Currently, the Himalayan nation of Bhutan has only 40 km of railway network.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Centre announced two cross-border railway projects spanning 69 km and 20 km respectively, which will connect Bhutan with the bordering areas of Assam and West Bengal. The 69-km Kokrajhar (Assam)-Gelephu (Bhutan) and 20-km Banarhat (West Bengal)-Samtse (Bhutan) will cost Rs 3,456 crore and Rs 577 crore, respectively. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Currently, the Himalayan nation of Bhutan does not have any railway network. The Gelephu and Samtse line will be the first such project in the neighbouring country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Over-exploited’ blocks are where the stage of groundwater extraction is over 100 per cent.

2. Blocks with groundwater extraction between 90-100 per cent are categorised as ‘Semi-critical’.

3. ‘Safe’ blocks are those having the stage of groundwater extraction equal to or less than 70 per cent.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The CGWB, under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, classifies blocks into four categories.

— ‘Over-exploited’ blocks are where the stage of groundwater extraction is over 100%, meaning that more groundwater is being drawn there than is being replenished. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Blocks with groundwater extraction between 90-100% are categorised as ‘critical’, those between 70% and 90% are classified as ‘semi-critical’, while the ‘safe’ blocks are those having the stage of groundwater extraction equal to or less than 70%. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to Diethylene Glycol, consider the following statements:

1. It is a toxic industrial chemical.

2. It is used in the manufacturing of cough syrups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Authorities in Madhya Pradesh have ordered the immediate stoppage of sales and distribution of a cough syrup after it was allegedly found to contain a poisonous substance linked to child deaths in the state’s Chhindwara district.

— According to a test report from the Government Analyst at the Drug Testing Laboratory in Chennai, the syrup was declared Not of Standard Quality after analysis found it contained 48.6 percent by volume of Diethylene Glycol, a toxic industrial chemical. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The report stated the sample was “found to be adulterated, since it contains Diethylene Glycol (48.6% w/v) which is [a] poisonous substance which may render the contents injurious to health”.

— It is not intended to be used in medications. However, there have been tragic examples of adulteration in which DEG was illegally used as a cheap alternative for glycerin in cough syrups, which is dangerous and not the intended application. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Recently, Cyclone Shakti has developed in the:

(a) Southern Indian Ocean

(b) Northern Bay of Bengal

(c) Arabian Sea

(d) Northern Indian Ocean

Explanation

— Cyclone Shakti, which developed in the Arabian Sea, has further intensified into a ‘severe’ storm on Saturday, according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

— As the storm, the first to develop in the North Indian Ocean basin in 2025, has moved significantly away from the Indian coast, there is no direct threat to the west coast.

— Cyclone Shakti was located 420 km west of Dwarka, 420 km west-southwest of Naliya, and 290 km south-southwest of Karachi in Pakistan. Rough sea conditions, squally weather, and high wind speeds ranging between 45-55 kmph gusting to 65 kmph will affect the Gujarat-Maharashtra coasts.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Chikungunya disease, consider the following statements:

1. It is a bacterial infection.

2. The symptoms can include high fever and severe joint pain.

3. There are no specific treatments for this disease.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— India could experience the biggest impacts of chikungunya in the long-term, potentially putting 51 lakh people at risk of the mosquito-borne infection every year, a global modelling study published in the British Medical Journal (BMJ) Global Health suggests.

— Brazil and Indonesia might be the second and third most affected, with impacts due to the disease in India and Brazil accounting for 48 per cent of the global impact on healthcare systems and individuals, the findings show.

— Chikungunya is a virus that spreads through bites of the ‘Aedes aegypti’ and ‘Aedes albopictus’ mosquitoes, more commonly known as yellow fever and tiger mosquitoes. Symptoms can include high fever and severe joint pain, and about 50 per cent of the patients are said to suffer from long-term joint pain and disability. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— While there are no specific treatments for the viral mosquito-borne infection, two preventive vaccines have been approved for use in certain countries, including the US. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the newly launched Sairang-Kolkata Express, consider the following:

1. It will be maintained and operated by the Southern Eastern Railway (SER) zone.

2. The train passes through Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Kolkata-Sairang Express train has been running with more than 140 per cent occupancy. Launched on September 13, the train began its commercial run on September 18 between Sairang and Kolkata.

— The Sairang-Kolkata Express will run as train number 13125/13126. It covers a distance of 1,530 km in 31:15 hrs. The train will run via Naihati, Krishnanagar City, Murshidabad. The train will be maintained and operated by the Eastern Railway (ER) zone. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Sairang-Kolkata Express does not travel via Bangladesh. It operates entirely within Indian territory, linking the northeastern state of Mizoram to West Bengal. Other trains that connect Kolkata to Bangladesh include the Maitree Express and the Bandhan Express, but the Sairang-Kolkata Express is not one of them. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

A ‘biostimulant’ is a substance or microorganism, or a combination of both, that stimulates plant processes to improve nutrient uptake, growth, yield, quality and stress tolerance. Consider the following statements with reference to biostimulant:

1. Like fertilisers, it supplies nutrients directly.

2. Unlike pesticides, it does not control pests.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Months after clearing them for crops, such as paddy, tomato, potato, cucumber and chilli, the Union Agriculture Ministry has withdrawn approval for the sale of 11 biostimulants derived from animal sources — from chicken feathers and pig tissue to bovine hide and cod scales — due to “religious and dietary restrictions”, The Indian Express has learnt.

— Officials told this newspaper that the decision followed complaints made to Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan’s office by “individuals” from the Hindu and Jain communities.

— A biostimulant is a substance or microorganism, or a combination of both, that stimulates plant processes to improve nutrient uptake, growth, yield, quality and stress tolerance. Unlike fertilisers, it does not supply nutrients directly, and unlike pesticides, it does not control pests.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Who founded the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh?

(a) K. S. Sudarshan

(b) Madhukar Dattatraya Deoras

(c) M. S. Golwalkar

(d) Keshav Baliram Hedgewar

Explanation

— Keshav Baliram Hedgewar (1 April 1889 – 21 June 1940) was an Indian physician who founded the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) in Nagpur in 1925. RSS completed its 100th year on October 2, 2025.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

British conservationist and animal researcher Jane Goodall died of natural causes on October 1. Consider the following statements with reference to her life:

1. She is credited with noticing human-like behaviours amongst chimpanzees.

2. Mattel launched a new Barbie doll modelled after Jane Goodall ahead of World Chimpanzee Day.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— In 2022, Mattel launched a new Barbie doll modelled after Jane Goodall ahead of World Chimpanzee Day. The Goodall doll is made from 75 per cent recycled ocean-bound plastic, in keeping with the ethologist’s focus on protecting the environment.

— In 1962, without a bachelor’s degree, she was allowed to enroll at the University of Cambridge to pursue a PhD in ethology. She completed her thesis in 1966 on the subject Behaviour of free-living chimpanzees, that included observations made during her initial study at the Gombe Reserve. The discoveries drastically changed the way the animals were studied and revealed a close evolutionary relationship between chimpanzees and humans.

— In 1977, she founded the Jane Goodall Institute (JGI), a global wildlife and environment conservation organisation that supports wildlife research and education, and protects chimpanzees and other primates by supporting sanctuaries and law enforcement efforts.

— Credited with noticing human-like behaviours amongst chimpanzees, Goodall was also the UN Messenger of Peace and honorary member of the World Future Council.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Which of the following crimes saw an increase in 2023 as compared to 2022 according to The National Crime Records Bureau or NCRB’s the Crime in India report for 2023?

1. Crime against children

2. Cybercrime

3. Crimes against Scheduled Tribes (STs)

4. Crime against women

Select the correct code from below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Crime against children: A total of 1,77,335 cases of crime against children were registered across the country in 2023, showing an increase of 9.2% as compared to the previous year.

— In percentage terms, major crime heads in 2023 were kidnapping and abduction of children (79,884 cases or 45%) and Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act (67,694 cases or 38.2%).

— Crimes against Scheduled Tribes (STs): Crimes against STs increased 28.8% in 2023, with 12,960 cases registered.

— Manipur, which has been grappling with ethnic violence between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities since May 2023, emerged as the worst-affected state. “Madhya Pradesh reported the second-highest number of crimes against STs with 2,858 cases, next was Rajasthan with 2,453 cases in 2023,” the report said.

— Crime against Scheduled Castes (SCs): There were 57,789 cases registered in 2023 for crimes against SCs, with Uttar Pradesh accounting for the highest share at 15,130 cases. Rajasthan recorded the second-highest number at 8,449, followed by Madhya Pradesh (8,232) and Bihar (7,064).

— Cybercrime: Cybercrime in India saw a sharp surge in 2023, with fraud, extortion and sexual exploitation accounting for the majority of cases. The crime rate, which is the number of crimes per lakh population, increased from 4.8 in 2022 to 6.2 in 2023.

— The rise in cases under the cybercrime category has been steady — from 27,248 in 2018, 44,735 in 2019, 50,035 cases in 2020, 52,974 in 2021 and 65,893 in 2022. Karnataka, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh saw the most cases.

— Crime against women: A total of 4,48,211 cases of crime against women were registered, marking an increase of 0.7%. The national crime rate stood at 66.2 incidents per lakh female population.

— Among states, Uttar Pradesh reported the highest number of cases at 66,381, followed by Maharashtra, Rajasthan, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh. “Majority of cases under crime against women were registered under cruelty by husband or relatives with 1,33,676 cases (29.8%), kidnapping and abduction of women with 88,605 cases (19.8%), followed by assault on women with intent to outrage her modesty with 83,891 cases (18.71%) and Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act with 66,232 cases (14.8%),” said the NCRB report.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Which European country came to a standstill due to a general strike recently as unions protested proposed labour law changes introducing a 13-hour workday?

(a) Portugal

(b) France

(c) Italy

(d) Greece

Explanation

— A general strike brought life to a standstill in Greece on Wednesday as unions stepped up stir against the proposed changes in the labour laws, introducing a 13-hour work day.

— As thousands of workers in the public and private sectors halted their duties and took to the streets during the 24-hour strike that disrupted services across the country.

— The 13-hour work day proposal is expected to be passed and made into law this month

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 21 to September 27, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 14 to September 20, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 07 to September 13, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 31 to September 06, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 24 to August 30, 2025

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