UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 17 to November 23, 2024

1. The founding treaty of ICC is known as the Rome Statute.

2. ICC cannot prosecute crimes against humanity.

3. The crime of aggression falls within the ICC’s jurisdiction.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The International Criminal Court (ICC) has issued arrest warrants for Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu and his former defence minister Yoav Gallant for “crimes against humanity and war crimes”.

— The ICC, headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands, was established under a 1998 treaty called the “Rome Statute”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It “investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression.” Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

— At present, 124 countries are party to the Rome Statute, including Britain, Japan, Afghanistan, and Germany. India is not a member, nor are China and the US.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty was in the news. It was launched by:

(a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

(b) Association of Southeast Asian Nations

(c) G20

(d) East Asia Summit

Explanation

— The G20 Leaders’ Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil was headlined by the official launch of the Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty.

— The initiative will serve as a platform for connecting countries in need of assistance with public policies targeted towards eradicating hunger and poverty, with partners willing to offer expertise or financial support.

— In 2015, all 193 UN Member States adopted the ‘2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development’ which aimed to, among other things, end poverty and hunger, and achieve food security and improved nutrition by 2030.

— According to Brazil President Lula da Silva, 81 countries (including India), 26 international organisations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 philanthropic foundations and non-governmental organisations have already joined the Alliance.

— The Alliance will provide a platform for countries to support each others’ public policies aimed at eradicating hunger and poverty. According to a factsheet released by the Alliance, “any member country can access proven best practices from other members and identify potential partners willing to assist in the development of its own national model.” Assistance may be in the form of technical expertise or financial support.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Paris Agreement, consider the following statements:

1. It is an international accord adopted in 2015 to address climate change and its adverse effects.

2. The treaty also requires all Parties to state every five years what they are doing to tackle climate change.

3. There is no procedure and timeline for a country’s withdrawal from the treaty.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Argentina’s far-right President Javier Milei is considering withdrawing his country from the Paris Agreement, which aims to curb global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, according to several Western media reports.

— The Paris Agreement is an international accord that was adopted by nearly every country in 2015 to address climate change and its adverse effects. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Its primary goal is to substantially reduce GHG emissions in a bid to limit global warming in this century to “well below” 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, while pursuing the means to curb warming to 1.5 degrees.

— The agreement mentions the safer limit of 1.5 degrees based on a fact-finding report which found that breaching the threshold could lead to “some regions and vulnerable ecosystems” facing high risks, over an extended, decades-long period.

— The treaty also requires all Parties (countries which have joined the agreement) to state every five years what they are doing to tackle climate change — what is known as their nationally determined contribution (NDC). Each successive NDC is meant to reflect an increasingly higher degree of ambition compared to the previous version, according to the website of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Article 28 of the Paris Agreement lays out the procedure and timeline for a country’s withdrawal from the treaty. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— If a member state wants to withdraw from the treaty, it has to submit the notification of a withdrawal to the Office of Legal Affairs of the UN, based at UN Headquarters in New York. Once the withdrawal notification has been received, it only becomes effective after one year (or later if the member state so says in the notification).

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Consider the following pairs:

Ballistic Missile	Range
Tactical Ballistic Missile	Less than 300 km
Medium-range Ballistic Missile	1000-3500 km
Intercontinental Ballistic Missile	More than 5000 km
Intermediate-range Ballistic Missile	More than 8000 km

How many of the pairs given above are correctly marked?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Explanation

— In response to the US and UK giving a greenlight to Kyiv to strike Russia with advanced Western weapons, Russia fired a hypersonic intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM) at the Ukrainian city of Dnipro.

— Ballistic missiles use projectile motion to deliver warheads on a target. They are powered for a relatively brief time, after which they let the laws of physics take them to their target.

Ballistic Missiles by Range
Name	Range
Tactical ballistic missile (TBM)	< 300 km
Short-range ballistic missile (SRBM)	300-1,000 km
Medium-range ballistic missile (MRBM)	1,000-3,500 km
Intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM)	3,500-5,500 kilometres
Intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM)	&gt; 5,500 km

(Source of table: UN Office of Disarmament Affairs)

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Recently, the Madras High Court allowed The Music Academy, Madras, to confer the Sangita Kalanidhi Award — considered the highest honour for a Carnatic musician — on vocalist:

(a) N. L. Ganasaraswathi

(b) L. R. Eswari

(c) Konerirajapuram Vaidyanatha Ayyar

(d) T M Krishna

Explanation

— Earlier this week, the Madras High Court granted The Music Academy, Madras, permission to confer the Sangita Kalanidhi Award — considered the highest honour for a Carnatic musician — on vocalist T M Krishna, but requested that M S Subbulakshmi’s name be removed from the mirror award given alongside, known as the Sangita Kalanidhi MS Subbulakshmi Award, and a cash prize of Rs 1 lakh.

— Originally named Sangita Kalanidhi, Subbulakshmi’s name was added to the award in 2005, nearly a year after the famed Carnatic vocalist died in 2004, and the Academy, along with The Hindu newspaper group, established the monetary award. Last year, Bombay Jayashree received the prestigious prize.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Instrument Landing System (ILS), consider the following statements:

1. It allows planes to land in extremely poor visibility conditions.

2. It provides the horizontal angle between a reference direction (in this case the runway) and a line to a point of interest (the aircraft).

3. The ILS does not provide the vertical descent profile for the aircraft.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

— With the national capital enveloped in a blanket of noxious smog, flight operations at the Indira Gandhi International Airport in Delhi have been impacted.

— CAT III refers to an Instrument Landing System (ILS) which allows planes to land in extremely poor visibility conditions, like what is currently being seen in Delhi. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Landing is considered the most difficult and risky component of piloting an aircraft. According to Boeing study, the final descent and landing account for around 4% of the typical flight time. However, a staggering 49% of fatal incidents occur within this small span.

— Poor vision is one of several variables that contribute to the difficulty of landing aeroplanes. In such conditions, pilots have few to no visual clues to rely on when landing an aircraft, making it difficult to precisely calculate the glide path to the ground and the aircraft’s alignment with the runway.

— The ILS is a specific ground-based radio navigation system that provides pilots accurate information about their aircraft’s glide path and alignment with the runway.

— It provides azimuth guidance. Azimuth refers to the horizontal angle between a reference direction (in this case the runway) and a line to a point of interest (the aircraft). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The ILS provides the correct vertical descent profile for the aircraft. In other words, it tells the pilot whether the aircraft is too high or too low at any given distance from the runway. This is done with the help of a glidescope (GS). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

The Kursk region was seen in the news. It is located in:

(a) Russia

(b) Romania

(c) Ukraine

(d) Turkey

Explanation

— Russia’s deployment of North Korean troops in the Ukraine war is a “grave escalation”, German Chancellor Olaf Scholz is learnt to have told Russian President Vladimir Putin in a phone call on November 15, as reported by the BBC.

— South Korea’s spy agency had said that North Korean soldiers were likely fighting the Ukrainians in Russia’s Kursk region. Russia has not confirmed these reports.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), consider the following statements:

1. The law was first brought as an ordinance and then notified as an Act in 1958.

2. It traces its roots to a colonial statute introduced in response to the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920.

3. It has never been imposed in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.

4. It gives military personnel power to arrest individuals and search premises without warrants on the basis of “reasonable suspicion”.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The Centre reimposed the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) in six police station areas of Manipur. The Home Ministry’s notification mentioned the “volatile” situation and “active participation of insurgent groups in heinous acts of violence” as the reasons.

— AFSPA, which traces its roots to a colonial statute introduced in response to the Quit India Movement in 1942, was retained in independent India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The law was first brought as an ordinance, and then notified as an Act in 1958. Over the years, AFSPA has been imposed in the Northeast, Jammu and Kashmir, and Punjab (during the years of militancy). It remains in force in parts of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh, and the entirety of J&K. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— AFSPA gives sweeping powers to the armed forces by providing military personnel blanket immunity for a range of actions.

— It allows the military to open fire — and even cause death — against any person breaking the law or carrying arms and ammunition. It also gives them the power to arrest individuals and search premises without warrants on the basis of “reasonable suspicion”. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Small modular reactors, consider the following statements:

1. These are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 1000 MW(e) per unit.

2. It is more complex to build than large power reactors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— On trade and economy, the points of convergence between India’s business interests and Trumponomics are beginning to get comprehensible. The one potential area of mutual interest could be Small Modular Reactors.

— Small modular reactors (SMRs) are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit, which is about one-third of the generating capacity of traditional nuclear power reactors. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Many of the benefits of SMRs stem from their tiny and modular design. Because of their reduced size, SMRs can be built in places where larger nuclear power facilities would not be feasible. Prefabricated SMR units can be built, delivered, and installed on-site, making them less expensive to build than massive power reactors, which are generally custom-designed for a specific area, resulting in construction delays.

— SMRs are less expensive and take less time to build, and they may be deployed gradually to meet rising energy demand. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— There are currently four main types, each using a different coolant to manage the extreme heat of a nuclear fission reaction — light water, high-temperature gas, liquid metal, and molten salt.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

The term “peak oil” refers to:

(a) an estimate of the amount of petroleum that can be recovered from known sources.

(b) an oil well with so much pressure that oil flows out of the well head into the air.

(c) highest amount of oil extraction from any country at any given point of time.

(d) the point when global production would top out, before entirely running out.

Explanation

— The term “peak oil” used to mean the point when global production would top out, before entirely running out.

— In 1956, M. King Hubbert, a US geoscientist working for fossil fuel giant Shell, predicted that world crude oil production would peak around the year 2000, before declining and finally ceasing entirely.

— It came as a surprise to petroleum producers, who had relied on oil to power a thriving global economy.

— According to the IEA’s 2024 World Energy Investment report, spending for clean technologies overtook fossil fuel investment for the first time in 2023, and is expected to reach $2 trillion (€1.8 trillion) this year, with slightly more than $1 trillion going to coal, gas, and oil.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

WOH G64 was in the news. It refers to:

(a) Jupiter’s moon

(b) Galaxy 1.8 light years away from Milky Way

(c) Giant star in the Large Magellanic Cloud

(d) Asteroid

Explanation

— Scientists have achieved the rare feat of getting a close-up shot of a star that is 1,60,000 light-years away from our galaxy and has a mass that is 2,000 times of the Sun. The first-ever, extreme close-up of the dying star reveals some crucial details about its activity and surrounding layers.

— The huge star, known as WOH G64, has been observed with amazing resolution by ESO’s Very Large Telescope Interferometer (VLTI).

— The WOH 64 is a giant star in the Large Magellanic Cloud, a dwarf or satellite galaxy that circles our Milky Way and is also one of the nearest galaxies to Earth.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) is related to:

(a) Plea bargaining

(b) Provide compensation to people who are wrongfully accused

(c) forensic investigation for offences punishable with at least seven years of imprisonment.

(d) Maximum period for which an undertrial prisoner can be detained.

Explanation

— Union Home Minister Amit Shah on Tuesday said that undertrials who have spent more than a third of the maximum prescribed sentence for the crime they are accused of committing should be released before Constitution Day (November 26).

— Section 479 of the BNSS lays down the “Maximum period for which [an] undertrial prisoner can be detained”.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to Coking coal, consider the following statements:

1. Coking coal is included in the list of critical minerals of India.

2. India’s export of the mineral is much higher than that of the EU.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The government must include coking coal in the list of critical minerals and provide special dispensation to enhance the domestic production of the key raw material for steel production, according to a Niti Aayog report. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The report ‘Enhancing Domestic Coking Coal Availability to Reduce the Import of Coking Coal’, said considering India’s commitments to Net Zero by 2070, the country’s interests would be better served by fully utilising the proved reserves of medium coking coal (16.5 billion tonne) in India for metallurgical purposes.

— The European Union has declared the ingredient as a critical raw material along with 29 other raw materials which include ‘green energy’ minerals like lithium, cobalt, and rare earths.

— India’s import dependence on the mineral is about 85 per cent, much higher than that of the EU (approximately 62 per cent). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

‘Fentanyl’ seen in news is:

(a) synthetic opioid drug

(b) an oxidiser ingredient in solid propellant mixtures for missiles, rockets, and munitions.

(c) reverse ageing chemical

(d) psychoactive drug used as a truth serum

Explanation

— For the first time in decades, public health data from the United States show a decline in drug overdose deaths across the country. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), 111,802 overdose deaths were reported in the 12 months ending August 2023. This number fell to 93,087 in June 2024 (the last month for which data are available) — a 16.4% drop in a 10-month span.

— Fentanyl, a synthetic opioid, lies at the heart of the United States’ drug crisis, and contributes to the majority of overdose deaths.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Tiger Reserve	State
Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla	Gujarat
Achanakmar	Chhattisgarh
Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve	Madhya Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— Earlier this month, the Chhattisgarh government notified the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla as India’s 56th tiger reserve.

— It is the fourth tiger reserve in Chhattisgarh after Achanakmar, Indravati, and Udanti Sitanadi.

— The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla is located between two other important tiger reserves: Bandhavgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Palamau, Jharkhand. It is adjacent to the Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve, also in MP.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 10 to November 16, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 03 to November 09, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 27 to November 02, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 20 to October 26, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 13 to October 19, 2024

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