UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 09 to November 15, 2025

QUESTION 1

With reference to the National Green Tribunal, consider the following statements:

1. It was established for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.

2. It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

3. Decisions of the National Green Tribunal cannot be challenged before any court in India.

4. The Tribunal is bound by procedure under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— Trinamool Congress Lok Sabha MP Mahua Moitra has knocked on the doors of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) after her complaints against alleged unauthorised construction for a government project at Kasturba Gandhi (KG) Marg in Delhi, in violation of measures to curb pollution, did not elicit any action from multiple authorities.

About NGT

— The National Green Tribunal was established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources, including the enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a specialised body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— NGT is not under the MoEFCC; it is an independent statutory judicial body, and its decisions can be appealed to the Supreme Court within 90 days. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: http://www.greentribunal.gov.in)

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Tier II bonds, consider the following statements:

1. These are debt instruments issued by banks to boost their capital base and support business operations.

2. These bonds have to be issued for a minimum period of one year.

3. These bonds help banks strengthen their capital adequacy ratios (CAR) under Basel III norms, and provide an additional cushion for future credit growth.

4. Tier II issuances tend to occur when local debt markets provide opportunities at competitive costs relative to term deposits.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— Several banks are racing to raise funds through Tier II bonds, debt instruments issued by lenders to boost their capital base, amidst a surge in capital generation through a record number of initial public offerings (IPOs) by companies.

— Tier II bonds are debt instruments issued by banks to boost their capital base and support business operations. These bonds have to be issued for a minimum period of five years. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— They help banks strengthen their capital adequacy ratios (CAR) under Basel III norms, and provide an additional cushion for future credit growth. These bonds also offer an efficient and relatively low-cost way to raise long-term capital without diluting equity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Tier II instruments offer long-term funding and also allow banks to add some extra buffers to their CRARs (capital to risk-weighted assets ratio).

— Tier II issuances tend to occur when local debt markets provide opportunities at competitive costs relative to term deposits. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Global TB Report 2025, consider the following statements:

1. The Global TB Report 2025 shows that India has achieved only a 21% reduction in new cases and a 28% reduction in deaths between 2015 and 2024.

2. The Global TB Report shows significant improvement in India’s treatment coverage.

3. In TB cases reduction, India is far below the global average.

4. The report is published by the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— While the burden of tuberculosis in India continues to decline, the country is nowhere close to achieving elimination, according to the Global TB Report 2025, released by the World Health Organisation. In 2024, India recorded around 27.1 lakh cases and more than three lakh deaths, making it one of the top contributors to the number of TB cases across the world, the analysis said. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The findings of the Global TB Report 2025 are crucial, as the Union Health Ministry has not released detailed data for 2024 so far. Usually, the government releases the India TB report in March every year, coinciding with World TB Day. This year, however, the report has not come out.

— India was among the eight high-burden countries that were able to diagnose more than 80% of the estimated cases last year. However, with the highest burden of TB cases, India was among the top countries contributing towards the global gap. The country accounted for 8.8% of the global gap, which was behind only Indonesia, which accounted for 10% of the global gap between estimated and diagnosed cases.

— In 2018, the government announced India’s ambitious target of eliminating TB by 2025, five years ahead of the global target. Although there has been a consistent decline in the estimated number of TB cases — as well as the rate of TB cases per 100,000 population — India is nowhere close to its target of eliminating the bacterial disease by 2025.

The elimination is defined as less than one case per million population; the WHO End TB strategy targets an 80% decline in new TB cases and 90% decline in TB deaths by 2030 as compared to the baseline year of 2015.

The Global TB Report 2025 shows that India has achieved only a 21% reduction in new cases and a 28% reduction in deaths between 2015 and 2024. This reduction achieved by India is ahead of the global average. TB incidence reduced only by 12% between 2015 and 2024 across the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

The Global TB Report shows significant improvement in India’s treatment coverage, which stood at 92% in 2024, increasing from 85% in 2023. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The Nellie massacre was the most violent flashpoint of the:

(a) Assam Agitation against illegal migration from Bangladesh

(b) Anti-Hindi agitation in Tamil Nadu

(c) Telangana movement for statehood

(d) Naxalite uprising in West Bengal

Explanation

— Two weeks before the Assam government is slated to circulate the Tewari commission report on the 1983 Nellie massacre, Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma Thursday said he believes the “highlight” of the report is not the incident itself but its documentation of “demographic change” and the tensions surrounding it during that period.

— The Nellie massacre of February 18, 1983, was the most violent flashpoint of the Assam Agitation against illegal migration from Bangladesh, taking place over several hours. The official death toll was 1,800 – mostly Bengali-origin Muslims – but the unofficial figure is 3,000. While 668 FIRs were registered in relation to the violence in a period of two months following it, nobody was arrested.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP), consider the following statements:

1. FRP of sugarcane is fixed at the end of the harvesting of the Sugar Season.

2. It is decided on recommendations of the Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP) in consultations with the State Government and other stakeholders.

3. The FRP for the season 2025-26 has been fixed at Rs 355, and it has consistently increased from 2021-22 to 2025-26.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The centre has decided to allow export of 15 lakh metric tonnes of sugar during the season (October-September) in 2025-26. An order to this effect was issued by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution on Friday.

— “ln exercise of powers conferred by Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act,1955 (10 of 1955) read with clause 6 and 7 of the Sugar (Control) Order, 2025, Government has decided to allocate export quota of 15 LMT of sugar for sugar season 2025-26,” states the order.

About FRP

— FRP of sugarcane is fixed before the commencement of Sugar Season to ensure guaranteed price to sugarcane growers. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— FRP is decided on recommendations of the Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP) in consultations with the State Government and other stakeholders. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— FRP is linked to a basic recovery rate of sugar, with a premium payable to farmers for higher recoveries, to ensure that higher sugar recoveries are adequately rewarded.

(Source: dfpd.gov.in)

— FRP for ensuing sugar season 2025-26 has been fixed at Rs 355 per quintal, and it has been increased consistently from 2021-22 to 2025-26. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

The Quality Control Orders (QCOs) are:

(a) Mandatory standards issued by the government to regulate the quality of specified goods

(b) Voluntary guidelines issued by private companies for quality product testing

(c) International trade agreements related to tariff control reduction

(d) Environmental permits issued for hazardous industries

Explanation

— At a time when India is rapidly opening its market to foreign goods under new Free Trade Agreements (FTAs), a parallel effort to improve quality standards in Indian products has proved to be ill-planned and costly, not only for India’s much-needed export competitiveness but also for domestic Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

— A Niti Aayog report, which is yet to be made public, by the ‘High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms’ said that a majority of the Quality Control Orders (QCOs) cover raw materials and intermediate products instead of finished goods, and in several cases, the new quality standards are not even in line with global benchmarks.

— QCOs — or legal directives issued by government ministries or departments under the Bureau of Indian Standards Act require products made or imported into India to meet specific standards — have increased input costs and caused production delays for downstream industries due to the limited availability of accredited testing facilities in the country, Niti Aayog said.

— QCOs are mandatory standards issued by the government to regulate the quality of specified goods.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

The Shaheed Veer Narayan Singh Memorial & Tribal Freedom Fighter Museum has been built in:

(a) Odisha

(b) Jharkhand

(c) Chhattisgarh

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

— While life stories of freedom fighters like Bhagat Singh, Chandrashekhar Azad and Subhas Chandra Bose continue to inspire millions, not many are aware of the tales of revolutionaries from tribal communities who played just as significant a role in the country’s struggle for Independence.

— To shine a spotlight on such revolutionaries, a unique museum was set up in Chhattisgarh’s New Raipur earlier this year. From life-sized sculptures depicting key moments of the freedom struggle to documents like hanging orders, and from artefacts such as weapons used by the mutineers to inspiring films on their lives, the Shaheed Veer Narayan Singh Memorial & Tribal Freedom Fighter Museum is aimed at giving a complete experience to those wishing to know more about tribal revolutionaries.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C) and Guanine (G) are:

(a) Carbohydrate molecules present in nucleotides

(b) Enzymes required for DNA replication

(c) Types of amino acids used in protein synthesis

(d) Nitrogenous bases found in DNA

Explanation

— The chemical existence of DNA was discovered in 1869 by the Swiss chemist Friedrich Miescher. Decades later, it was learnt that chromosomes, made of DNA and some proteins, were associated with inheritance. By the 1940s, scientists figured out that it was DNA, and not the proteins inside the chromosomes that carried genetic information. But scientists still did not know how DNA was able to store genetic information or how it was passed on. Thus, its structure had to be deciphered.

— In 1952, Watson and Crick experimented with three-dimensional wooden models to fit into a structure that matched the information provided by other scientists.

— The final Watson-Crick wooden model had two long strands, each with a series of four nitrogen-containing compounds — Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C) and Guanine (G) — these are Nitrogenous bases found in DNA – held in a chain by some sugar and phosphate compounds. The Adenine on one strand is always opposite the Thymine on the other, while the Cytosine is paired opposite Guanine. The two parallel strands were shaped in a twisted ladder of sorts, to account for stability, compactness and other features revealed in earlier experiments.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Which of the countries is facing the worst drought in around six decades, with major dams in the country at critically low levels?

(a) Iran

(b) Turkey

(c) Argentina

(d) Thailand

Explanation

— Iran is facing the worst drought in around six decades, with major dams in the country at critically low levels.

— Iranian officials have announced water rationing in Tehran, as the province faces its worst drought in about a century. It recorded only 159 mm of rainfall last year.

— Iran has 523 large dams in operation, according to the Iranian National Committee on Large Dams. It estimated that about 99.6 per cent of the urban population and 82 per cent of the rural population have access to a drinking water supply.

— Concerns of a water crisis have grown in recent months, with the Iranian Water Resources Management Company saying that 19 major dams, comprising 10 per cent of the country’s reservoirs, had run dry in October.

— The five major dams supplying water to Tehran are at “critical” levels, with one nearly empty and another at less than 8 per cent, The Agence France-Presse reported on Sunday. The Amir Kabir Dam on the Karaj river was estimated to hold only 14 million cubic litres a day, lasting under two weeks, while daily water use in the province was estimated at 3 million cubic litres per day.

— Similarly, in Mashhad, Iran’s holiest city, located in the north-eastern province of Razavi Khorasan, water levels at the four dams supplying water to this city have plunged below 3% according to the ISNA news agency.

— In the most immediate sense, Iran’s drought has been triggered by low autumnal rainfall. This capped a dry summer marked by soaring temperatures and extensive power cuts.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Parole and furlough, consider the following statements:

1. These are provisions of the penal system, where prisoners can seek to be released from jail for a specific time before returning to serve the remaining sentence.

2. Furlough is granted in case of a specific emergency, like the death or ill health of a prisoner’s family member, whereas parole can be granted without a specific reason.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Bombay High Court on Monday (November 10) upheld a trial court’s order convicting a security guard of a Mumbai high-rise for murdering a 25-year-old corporate lawyer in her flat in 2012. It also dismissed a plea by the victim, Pallavi Purkayastha’s father and the Maharashtra government seeking the death penalty for the convict.

— Under the erstwhile Indian Penal Code, the punishment for various crimes like murder has been imprisonment for life, interpreted to mean the person’s whole life in prison. Provisions in the Criminal Procedure Code, however, provided the appropriate government’s power to decide on whether it wants to suspend, remit or commute the sentence imposed by any court, as per sections 432 and 433.

— Section 433A, however, also specified that a person sentenced to life imprisonment cannot be released till they have completed at least fourteen years in jail, as part of their sentence. Thus, many convicts sentenced to life imprisonment seek remission by filing applications before the prison department seeking to be released. This is then decided by the state, depending on the circumstances of the case. In many cases, this means that the person is released after spending 14 years in jail.

— However, in cases where it was felt that 14 years is not sufficient punishment for some crimes, even as the crime is not ‘rarest of rare’ to warrant the death penalty, the Supreme Court has said that it can ‘impose a restriction’ on the convict’s right to remission after 14 years, by directing that the person shall remain in prison for the remainder of his life.

— The new criminal law, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which replaced the IPC, lays a distinction between ‘imprisonment for life’ as listed in some sections, and ‘imprisonment for life, which shall mean the remainder of that person’s natural life’ as listed in other sections.

What does a sentence of life imprisonment without parole or furlough mean?

— Parole and furlough are provisions of the penal system, where prisoners can seek to be released from jail for a specific time before returning to serve the remaining sentence. Both parole and furlough grant a convict temporary release from judicial custody. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Parole is granted in case of a specific emergency, like the death or ill health of a prisoner’s family member, whereas furlough can be granted without a specific reason, to enable to convict to maintain continuity with family life and integration with society. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The courts have specified that parole and furlough cannot be claimed as a legal right, and these can be refused to certain categories of prisoners.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Consider the following statements with reference to Global Carbon Project:

1. China registered the greatest increase of carbon emissions in 2025 over 2024, followed by India, US and the EU.

2. It points out that emissions from India and China increased much more slowly in 2025 compared to 2024, largely because of the large-scale deployment of renewable energy.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Global carbon emissions are estimated to touch a record high by the end of 2025, according to a study whose release was timed to coincide with the COP 30 underway in Brazil. The US registered the greatest increase over 2024 at 1.9 per cent, followed by India at 1.4 per cent and China and the EU at 0.4 per cent. However, the report, produced by a team of 130 scientists working with the Global Carbon Project, points out that emissions from India and China increased much more slowly compared to 2024, largely because of the large-scale deployment of renewable energy.

— A relatively cooler summer and an early monsoon also meant that India’s electricity-sector emissions in the first half of this year declined compared to the same period in 2024. The slowdown should also be seen as a part of a longer trend of reduction in the carbon intensity of the country’s economy —the average growth of GHG emissions came down to 3.6 per cent in 2015-2024 from 6.4 per cent in 2004-2015. In contrast, the US figures indicate a reversal of a nearly two-decade-long downward trend in the country’s emissions.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Why was Nyoma recently in the news?

(a) India inaugurated a new high-altitude Nyoma air base capable of supporting fighter aircraft.

(b) A major cultural festival — the Snow Leopard Cultural Expo — was held there with support from the Indian Army.

(c) The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) conducted a disaster-management camp in Nyoma to train locals in earthquake and fire safety.

(d) A new international road linking Nyoma to neighboring countries was inaugurated to increase civilian connectivity.

Explanation

— The Indian Air Force (IAF) on Wednesday, November 12, inaugurated a new military airbase in Nyoma, southeastern Ladakh. The inaugural landing was performed by Air Chief Marshal A P Singh, who landed the C-130J special operations aircraft at the Mudh-Nyoma air force station in Ladakh.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following groups of states celebrated 25 years of their formation in 2025?

(a) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttarakhand

(b) Telangana, Chhattisgarh and Uttarakhand

(c) Jharkhand, Telangana and Himachal Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand, Mizoram and Chhattisgarh

Explanation

— States formed in the year 2000. Completed 25 years in 2025:

• Chhattisgarh

• Jharkhand

• Uttarakhand

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 14

Which of the following is an example of the “Streisand Effect”?

(a) NASA delaying the release of data from the Europa Clipper mission due to calibration issues, resulting in minimal public debate.

(b) A central bank issuing revised inflation projections that receive normal media coverage without controversy.

(c) The Epstein files, where attempts to suppress or limit access to court documents triggered far greater public attention and demand for full disclosure.

(d) A major sports league imposing a temporary media blackout on a player injury, which fails to attract significant public reaction.

Explanation

— Despite their best efforts, US President Donald Trump and the Republicans cannot seem to escape the shadow of Jeffrey Epstein, the socialite financier who trafficked women and children for the world’s rich and powerful.

— On Wednesday, Democrats released 20,000 pages of documents from Epstein’s estate, including emails mentioning Trump. In one particular email, sent to author Michael Wolff who has written numerous books about the US President, Epstein wrote: “…of course he knew about the girls…”.

— The Epstein files saga is an example of the Streisand effect.

— Coined by blogger-entrepreneur Mike Masnick in 2005, the Streisand effect describes a situation where an attempt to censor, remove, or hide information backfires and draws more public attention to it.

— Masnick, founder of the website Techdirt, coined the term after singer-actor Barbara Streisand sued the photographer Kenneth Adelman in 2003 for $50 million. Adelman had taken thousands of photos for the California Coastal Records Project, a resource that provided pictures of California’s coastal erosion to scientists and researchers; one of these photos happened to show Streisand’s mansion in Malibu.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 15

In which state are the Saranda Forests, which were recently in the news, located?

(a) Chattisgarh

(b) Jharkhand

(c) Uttarakhand

(d) Gujarat

Explanation

— The Supreme Court on Thursday directed the Jharkhand government to declare the Saranda forests as a wildlife sanctuary and conservation reserve, prohibiting any mining activity within a one-km radius of its boundary.

— The SC said that “National Wildlife Action Plan 2017-31 recognises the need to enhance the protected area network (broadly including national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, community reserves etc.) and to demarcate boundaries for protected areas” and the plan “further stresses on in situ conservation of threatened species, and the need for immediate conservation measures including the protection of critical habitations”.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

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