UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | May 11 to May 17, 2025

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QUESTION 1

With reference to the Kaladan Multi Modal Transit Transport Project (KMMTTP), consider the following statements:

1. The KMMTTP framework was signed by India and Singapore in 2008.

2. It was set to be a major development in India’s strategically vital Look East Policy.

3. The idea behind the project was to create a transit corridor from the port of Sittwe in the Rakhine State to Mizoram.

4. Upon completion, the KMMTTP would effectively shave off 1,000 km in distance between Kolkata and Mizoram.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— Amid a downturn in India’s relations with Bangladesh, the long-delayed Kaladan Multi Modal Transit Transport Project (KMMTTP) connecting Mizoram to Kolkata via Myanmar has gained in importance.

— The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) has approved a 166.8-kilometer four-lane highway from Shillong to Silchar, which will eventually expand to Zorinpui, Mizoram, and connect the KMMTTP to a high-speed road corridor that runs through the heart of the Northeast.

Express Graphic

— Following feasibility studies completed in the late 1990s and early 2000s, India and Myanmar signed the KMMTTP framework in 2008. This was expected to represent a significant advance in India’s strategically important Look East Policy. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— The concept for the project was clear. To build a transit corridor connecting the port of Sittwe in Myanmar’s Rakhine State to Mizoram, and eventually the whole of northeast India. This would let goods be exported from India’s eastern ports, especially Kolkata, to Sittwe, and then transported to Mizoram and elsewhere. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Upon completion, the KMMTTP would effectively reduce the distance between Kolkata and Mizoram by 1,000 km and save three to four days of travel time. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the shingles, consider the following statements:

1. It is a viral infection that causes painful rashes.

2. It occurs only on the palms.

3. It is caused by the varicella-zoster virus — the virus which also causes chickenpox.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

— The shingles vaccine may protect against more than just the viral infection. A recent South Korean study indicated that those who were vaccinated had a 23% decreased risk of acquiring cardiovascular problems.

— Shingles is a viral infection that results in painful rashes. While shingles can develop anywhere on the body, it usually appears as a single stripe of blisters that wraps around the left or right side of the torso, following the direction of the nerve through which the virus transmits. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— It is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chicken pox. After a bout of chickenpox, which commonly occurs in childhood, the virus remains dormant in nerve cells for the rest of one’s life. It can reactivate and produce shingles when a person’s immune system is compromised. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The shingles vaccination, which inhibits the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, is particularly advised for people over the age of 50. It may also be indicated for people who have a compromised immune system as a result of illnesses like HIV.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Recently, the Perito Moreno glacier was in the news due to ice calving. The glacier is located in:

(a) Japan

(b) Nepal

(c) Brazil

(d) Argentina

Explanation

— Argentina’s most famous glacier, the Perito Moreno glacier, which covers 250 square kilometres (the total size of Patna, Bihar), is collapsing. Just a few weeks ago, it shed a massive block of ice the size of a 20-story structure, dropping 70 meters into the ocean below.

— Such outbursts, known as ice calving events, are not new to the glacier. In fact, because these episodes are a visual spectacle, they are the fundamental reason for the Perito Moreno glacier’s reputation, making it a popular tourist attraction.

— However, in recent years, scientists and experts have expressed alarm over the size of the ice pieces breaking off. The recent ice calving occurrence has heightened this fear. Despite rising global temperatures, the Perito Moreno glacier remained extraordinarily stable for several decades. However, this altered about 2020.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Economic Capital Framework, consider the following statements:

1. It is used to determine risk provisioning and surplus distribution by the central bank to the government.

2. It provides a methodology for determining the appropriate level of risk provisions and profit distribution.

3. It is reviewed yearly by NITI Aayog.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) central board of directors reviewed the Economic Capital Framework (ECF), which determines risk provisioning and surplus distribution to the government. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— The RBI is expected to deliver a record surplus of between Rs 2.5 lakh crore and Rs 3 lakh crore to the government in fiscal year 2024-25. In 2023-24, the RBI transferred its highest-ever excess of Rs 2.11 lakh crore.

— The economic capital framework outlines a mechanism for assessing the necessary level of risk provisions and profit distribution under Section 47 of the RBI Act of 1934. According to this regulation, the central bank is expected to contribute the balance of its profits to the central government after accounting for bad and doubtful loans, asset depreciation, and employee contributions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following amendments bills was passed to recognise Sikkim as a state in the Union of India?

(a) 32nd Amendment Bill

(b) 36th Amendment Bill

(c) 41st Amendment Bill

(d) 46th Amendment Bill

Explanation

— Sikkim Day, observed on May 16 each year, commemorates the erstwhile kingdom’s unification with India in 1975. On its 50th anniversary, Prime Minister Narendra Modi sent his greetings to the people of Sikkim on X, saying, “Sikkim is associated with calm beauty, rich cultural traditions, and hard-working people. It has made progress in a variety of industries. May the people of this wonderful state continue to thrive.”

— In 1974, elections were held, and the Sikkim Congress, led by Kazi Dorji, won. That year, a new constitution was enacted, limiting the monarch’s status to a titular position. A referendum was held in 1975, and two-thirds of eligible voters took part.

— Within a week, India’s Ministry of External Affairs introduced the Constitution (Thirty-Sixth Amendment) Bill in the Lok Sabha, recognising Sikkim as a state within the Union of India. This was voted by Parliament and assented to by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed, taking effect May 16, 1975.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following statements:

1. It is bounded to the north by the Banas river and to the south by the Chambal river.

2. It comprises Sawaimadhopur Sanctuary, Sawaiman Singh sanctuary, Keladevi sanctuary and part of National Gharial Sanctuary.

3. It was declared a tiger reserve in 1974.

4. It is a dry deciduous forest and an open grassy meadow.

The above given statements refer to which tiger reserve?

(a) Veerangana Durgavati

(b) Ranthambore

(c) Sariska

(d) Mukundara Hills

Explanation

— A forest range officer Devendra Singh Choudhury was killed. It was the second death inside Ranthambhore in less than a month which, experts say, was precipitated by a series of “thoughtless interventions and oversights”.

About Ranthambhore

— Ranthambhore was declared a tiger reserve in 1974. Over the decades, it has emerged as one of the few strongholds of India’s national animal and the world’s favourite tiger destination.

— It includes Ranthambore National Park, Sawaimadhopur Sanctuary, Sawaiman Singh Sanctuary, Keladevi Sanctuary, and a portion of National Gharial Sanctuary, among other forest regions.

— It is located between the steep Aravali and Vindhya hills. It is flanked to the north by the Banas River and to the south by Chambal River.

— There are dry deciduous trees and wide grassland meadows. It has a stunning environment with boulder-strewn highland plateaus, lakes, and rivers, as well as historic forts and abandoned mosques, which creates an ideal ecosystem for bird and mammal observation.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: obms-tourist.rajasthan.gov.in)

QUESTION 7

With reference to the McMahon line, consider the following statements:

1. It is the boundary between Tibet and British India agreed in 1914.

2. The McMahon Line was named after the chief British negotiator at Shimla.

3. It was drawn from the eastern border of Bhutan to the Isu Razi pass on the China-Myanmar border.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— India rejected the new Chinese names for sites in Arunachal Pradesh as a “preposterous” attempt to change the “undeniable” fact that the state “was, is, and will” always be an integral part of India.

— China claims around 90,000 square kilometres of Arunachal Pradesh as its territory. It refers to the area as “Zangnan” in Chinese and repeatedly mentions “South Tibet”.

— The People’s Republic of China challenges the legal status of the McMahon Line, the boundary between Tibet and British India agreed upon in the 1914 Simla Convention (formally the ‘Convention Between Great Britain, China, and Tibet’). Hence, statements 1 is correct.

— China was represented at the Simla Convention by a plenipotentiary from the Republic of China, which was established in 1912 when the Qing dynasty was deposed. (The current communist administration took control only in 1949, when the People’s Republic was declared.)

— The McMahon Line, named after Henry McMahon, the main British negotiator at Shimla, stretches from Bhutan’s eastern border to the Isu Razi pass on the China-Myanmar border. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the President’s power to consult Supreme Court, consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The President may refer any question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court.

Statement 2: Supreme Court may choose to answer or decline the reference.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

— Under Article 143(1), if at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Article 143(1) states the court “may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon”. The word ‘may’ indicates that it is the court’s prerogative to answer the reference. The SC has so far returned at least two references without answering. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to citizenship by birth, consider the following statements:

1. The constitution provides citizenship by birth.

2. A Non-Resident Indian(NRI) is an Indian citizen by birth only.

3. A person born on or after December 3, 2024 is considered a citizen only if both parents are citizens of India.

4. The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides governs the loss of Indian citizenship.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The US Supreme Court will hear arguments over the legality of an executive order issued by President Donald Trump that seeks to end birthright citizenship.

Citizenship in India

— According to the Constitution, four categories of persons become citizens of India, which also includes a person born in India or whose/parents were born in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— An Indian citizen by any means as per the Citizenship Act,1955, i.e. by birth, by Descent, by Registration, by Naturalisation, by Incorporation of Territory, and Special Provisions as to Citizenship of Persons Covered by the Assam Accord. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— A per the Citizenship Act, 1955, A person born on or after December 3, 2024 considered a citizen only if both of their parents are citizens of India or one of whose parents is a citizen of India and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The Citizenship Act(1955) provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution, it governs both acquisition and loss of citizenship. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 10

The term ‘Most Favoured Nation’ was recently in the news. It is related to:

(a) World Trade Organisation

(b) Food and Agriculture Organisation

(c) World Bank

(d) United Nations Development Programme

Explanation

— United States President Donald Trump signed an executive order to lower the prices of prescription drugs by a range of 59% to 90%, according to Reuters.

— Under Article 1 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994, every member country of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) must accord Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status to all other member countries.

— MFN status cannot discriminate among their trading partners or grant one country “a special favour” such a lower customs duty on one of their products, without extending the same to other WTO members.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Recently, the Supreme Court of India removed the points-based system. It is related to:

(a) Promotion for Persons with Disabilities(PwD)

(b) Driving Licence renewal

(c) Senior Advocate designation

(d) Immigration System

Explanation

— The Supreme Court did away with the existing points-based assessment devised by it for grant of senior designations to advocates in the top court and high courts and issued a new set of guidelines.

— As per the points-based system laid down by the top court in 2017, all matters relating to designation were to be dealt with by a Permanent Committee to be known as “Committee for Designation of Senior Advocates”.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

With reference to the Gautam Buddha, consider the following statements:

1. Hindus considered him the ninth avatar (reincarnation) of Vishnu.

2. ‘Maitreya’ will be the future Buddha.

3. King Ajatasattu was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha.

4. Maharashtra has the highest Buddhist population.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Buddha, a philosopher, spiritual guide, religious leader, and meditator, is considered the ninth Vishnu avatar (reincarnation) by Hindus. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— In Buddhist tradition, the future Buddha is known as Maitreya. He is currently a bodhisattva, residing in the Tushita heaven, and is believed to be the next Buddha to be born on Earth, succeeding Gautama Buddha. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— According to Buddhist texts, Bimbisara met Buddha after his enlightenment, became one of his early lay followers, and supported the spread of Buddhism. His reign is generally dated to around 558–491 BCE, which overlaps with the estimated lifetime of Gautama Buddha (approximately 563–483 BCE, though dates vary by tradition) while Ajatasattu reigned after Bimbisara. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Maharashtra has the highest Buddhist population in India, with 5.81% of its total population identifying as Buddhist. This includes a significant number of Neo-Buddhists, also known as Navayana Buddhists. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Recently, a rare genetic disorder was detected in Brazil. Which one is this:

(a) Down syndrome

(b) Edwards syndrome

(c) Havana Syndrome

(d) Spoan syndrome

Explanation

— For decades, the residents of Serrinha dos Pintos, a remote town in northeastern Brazil, were victims of an illness that robbed many children of their ability to walk. until Silvana Santos, a biologist and geneticist from São Paulo, identified and named the unknown condition: Spoan syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that affects the nervous system, gradually weakening the body.

— Down syndrome is a genetic condition that occurs when a person has an extra copy of chromosome 21. It’s the most common chromosomal anomaly in humans and can cause intellectual disabilities and health issues.

— Edwards syndrome is a genetic condition that occurs when a baby is born with three copies of chromosome 18 instead of two. It causes physical growth delays during fetal development.

— Havana Syndrome is a mysterious illness causing a range of neurological problems. It was first reported by the US Embassy staff in Havana, Cuba, in 2016, when they began experiencing extreme headaches and hearing piercing sounds at night, later reported by embassy staff in China and Europe.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to BrahMos Missile, consider the following statements:

1. It is a cruise missile.

2. BrahMos played a critical role during Operation Vijay.

3. It is fuelled by solid propellant only.

4. BrahMos is a joint venture between India and Israel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— BrahMos is a long-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile with a high-explosive, conventional warhead. The missile can take any trajectory predetermined by the user. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— BrahMos was first tested successfully on June 12, 2001, this supersonic cruise missile was likely used for the first time in a combat situation during Operation Sindoor, while Operation Vijay was related to the Kargil conflict of 1999. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine. Its first stage brings the missile to a supersonic speed, greater than the speed of sound, and it then gets separated. The second stage of the liquid ramjet then fires and thrusts the missile to three times the speed of sound in its cruise phase. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— An Inter-Governmental Agreement was signed in Moscow in February 1998 by Dr Kalam, who then headed the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), and N.V. Mikhailov, Russia’s Deputy Defence Minister.

— The agreement led to the formation of BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between the DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM). BrahMos is an amalgamation of the names of the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to Rice is India, consider the following statements:

1. Uttar Pradesh is the leading state in rice production.

2. Rice is a Kharif crop.

3. ‘Kamala’ is a genetically edited (GE) mutant rice variety.

4. Chhattisgarh procured the highest quantity of rice under MSP, followed by Punjab, in 2024-2025.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— As reported by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Uttar Pradesh accounted for 16.52% (highest) of the total rice production in India during the 2024-25 period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—- Rice is the most important Kharif crop of India. It is grown in rain-fed areas with hot and humid climates, especially the eastern and southern parts of India. Rice requires a temperature of 16–20 °C (61–68 °F) during the growing season and 18–32 °C (64–90 °F) during ripening. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The new GE mutant, called Kamala, produces 450-500 grains per panicle, as against 200-250 grains in the parent Samba Mahsuri variety. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Kamala also matures in 130 days, 15-20 days earlier than Samba Mahsuri. Lower duration translates into water savings. Kamala also has more root biomass area, which enhances the plant’s ability to mobilise available phosphorus and nitrogen in the soil for its growth and development. That, in turn, helps save the use of urea and phosphate fertilisers as well.

— According to the Department of Food & Public Distribution within the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Punjab led in rice procurement during the 2024-2025 season with a total of 1,73,35,365.70 MT, followed by Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: cfpp. nic. in & upag.gov.in)

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | May 04, to May 10, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 27 to May 03, 2025

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UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | April 06 to April 12, 2025

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