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UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.
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With reference to the Transforming Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology (TRUST), consider the following statements:
1. It is India and the United States bilateral initiative for cooperation in the recovery and processing of critical minerals, including lithium and rare earth elements (REEs).
2. The TRUST initiative will open the channel for India’s induction into the US-led Minerals Security Finance Network.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
India and the United States have launched a bilateral initiative for cooperation in the recovery and processing of critical minerals, including lithium and rare earth elements (REEs). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Under the Transforming Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology (TRUST) initiative announced during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Washington, the two countries will reduce barriers to technology transfer, address export controls, and enhance high tech commerce.
“Today we have agreed on TRUST. Under this, emphasis will be laid on creating strong supply chains of critical minerals, advanced materials and pharmaceuticals. It has also been decided to launch a recovery and processing initiative for strategic minerals like lithium and rare earth,” the Prime Minister said at a press conference with US President Donald Trump on Thursday (early on Friday in India).
The TRUST initiative follows India’s induction into the US-led Minerals Security Finance Network in September last year. India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to ‘Einstein ring’, recently seen in news, consider the following statements:
1. NASA’s Euclid space telescope has discovered this rare ring of light.
2. It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered a rare ring of light, known as an Einstein ring, around a galaxy nearly 590 million light-years away from Earth. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Photos, which were taken by Euclid in September 2023 but released on Monday, of the Einstein ring show a bright ball of light in the centre with a bright, cloudy ring around it. The ring was discovered around NGC 6505, a galaxy that was first found in the 19th Century.
An Einstein ring is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or cluster of galaxies. It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing. Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon which occurs when a massive celestial body — such as a galaxy or cluster of galaxies — creates a gravitational field which distorts and amplifies the light from distant galaxies that are behind it but in the same line of sight, according to a report on the website of National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). The body causing the light to curve is called a gravitational lens. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
“Hicklin test” is related to:
(a) Physical fitness of sports professionals
(b) Firing tests, durability tests, accuracy tests, and more for military weapons
(c) Tests applied while sentencing an accused in a criminal case.
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION
The most important early ruling on obscenity laws involved the book Lady Chatterley’s Lover, written by English author D H Lawrence. The book was considered scandalous for the times with its depictions of sexual encounters, and faced obscenity trials in several countries, including the United Kingdom and India.
It was published in 1928 in Italy and 1929 in France, although in England, the book was unavailable in an unexpurgated edition until 1960. In 1964, the Supreme Court of India held that the book was obscene under Section 292 of the IPC in the case of Ranjit D Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra (1964). It did so by borrowing from a British case called Queen v. Hicklin (1868) which laid down the “Hicklin test” for determining if a work is obscene.
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
Launched in 2023, the Young Professionals Scheme (YPS) is a reciprocal program under which nationals of two countries, aged 18 to 30, can live, study, travel, and work in the other country for up to two years. It is part of the Migration and Mobility Agreement that the two countries signed in 2021, capping the number of young professionals admitted to either country at 3,000 per year. While India is one of the countries, which is the other?
(a) Canada
(b) United States of America
(c) United Kingdom
(d) Australia
EXPLANATION
India-UK visa scheme: The ballot for this year’s United Kingdom-India Young Professionals Scheme (YPS) will open next week. The scheme offers both British and Indian nationals the opportunity to live, study, travel, and work in the other country for up to two years.
However, while there is a ballot system for Indians to apply to live in the UK, with a cap of 3,000 announced this year, there is no such ballot for British citizens to apply under the scheme.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the signed copy of the Constitution by its framers, carrying 22 miniatures, consider the following statements:
1. While the Constitution was handwritten by calligrapher Nandalal Bose, the paintings were conceived and implemented in Santiniketan by artist-pedagogue Prem Behari Narain Raizada and his team.
2. The Preamble page has intricate patterns sketched by Beohar Rammanohar Sinha and bears his signature.
3. The Bull Seal, excavated from the Indus Valley region, is the first pictorial representation in the Constitution.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Parliament on Tuesday (February 11) saw an uproar over 22 illustrations in the Constitution. BJP MP Radha Mohan Das Agrawal, during the Zero Hour, said the 22 illustrations are missing in most copies of the Constitution being sold today.
In response, Rajya Sabha Chairman Jagdeep Dhankhar said the signed copy of the Constitution by its framers, carrying 22 miniatures, is the only authentic copy, and the same should be promulgated in the country.
While the copy of the Constitution kept in Parliament has the illustrations, some less-bulky versions of the Constitution are sold with only the full text, without the illustrations and the signatures of the framers.
While the Constitution was handwritten by calligrapher Prem Behari Narain Raizada, the paintings were conceived and implemented in Santiniketan by artist-pedagogue Nandalal Bose and his team. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
When placed in sequence, the narrative scheme of the paintings represents different periods in Indian history, from the Indus Valley civilisation to the freedom struggle, also including scenes from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.
The Preamble page has intricate patterns sketched by Beohar Rammanohar Sinha and bears his signature, while Dinanath Bhargava sketched the National Emblem, the Lion Capital of Ashoka. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Bull Seal, excavated from the Indus Valley region, is the first pictorial representation in the Constitution, appearing in ‘Part I: The Union and its Territory’. ‘Part II: Citizenship’ features a hermitage scene with male ascetic figures offering prayers in a meditative environment. In another scene of hermitage that appears in Part V, Buddha is the central figure, surrounded by disciples, animals, and birds in a serene setting. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to ‘Green bonds’, consider the following statements:
1. Green bonds are debt instruments issued by governments, corporations, and multilateral banks to raise funds for projects that reduce emissions or enhance climate resilience.
2. Issuers offer green bonds at higher yields than conventional bonds, creating a “green premium” (or greenium) that reflects the cost advantage of financing exclusively green investments.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
Like several emerging markets, India also turned to sovereign green bonds to help fund its transition to a low-carbon economy, but investor demand remains weak.
While green bonds help governments raise capital for clean energy and infrastructure, India’s issues have struggled to secure a meaningful ‘greenium’— lower borrowing costs typically associated with such bonds. As a result, planned allocations for key schemes, including grid-scale solar, have been slashed.
With muted investor interest, India is relying on general revenue to bridge funding gaps. Addressing liquidity issues, improving reporting transparency, and exploring sustainability bonds could help boost demand and expand green finance in the country.
Green bonds are debt instruments issued by governments, corporations, and multilateral banks to raise funds for projects that reduce emissions or enhance climate resilience. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDKY) is based on which of the following parameters?
1. low productivity
2. moderate crop intensity
3. below-average credit parameters
4. financial inclusion & skill Development
5. agricultural education
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION
PMDKY will cover 100 districts based on three broad parameters: low productivity, moderate crop intensity, and below-average credit parameters, Sitharaman had said. As per sources, the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has been collecting data of these parameters, based on which the districts will be identified.
Cropping intensity is a measure of how efficiently land is used, and it is defined as the percentage of the gross cropped area to the net area sown. In simple words, the cropping intensity indicates the number of crops grown on a piece of land in an agricultural year (July-June).
At the all India level, the cropping intensity was recorded at 155% in 2021-22, although the figure greatly varied from state to state. Cropping intensity was only 111% in 1950-51.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
‘Horizon 2047’ Roadmap, seen in news, refers to:
(a) US plan for Gaza
(b) World Bank Forest Action Plan
(c) India-France relations
(d) NASA’s manned space program
EXPLANATION
Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited France from February 10 to 12 at the invitation of French President Emmanuel Macron. It was a very significant visit — this is why.
The PM’s visit had two key dimensions: the AI Action Summit which he co-chaired with President Macron, and consolidating India-France ties, which were elevated to the strategic partnership level in 1998. The two countries also reviewed the ‘Horizon 2047’ Roadmap agreed two years ago.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements about the Mazargues Indian Memorial is/are correct?
1. The memorial in France commemorates soldiers from both World War I and World War II.
2. A majority of the soldiers commemorated were Indian soldiers who fought for the British.
3. The memorial was unveiled by India’s Prime Minister Narendra Modi and France President Emmanuel Macron.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Prime Minister Narendra Modi and France President Emmanuel Macron paid tribute to fallen Indian soldiers at the Mazargues War Cemetery in Marseille on Wednesday (February 12).
The cemetery commemorates 1,487 soldiers who fell during World War I (1914-18), and 267 from World War II (1939-45), a majority of whom — 998 — were Indians fighting for the British. The Mazargues Indian Memorial was unveiled by British Field Marshal Sir William Birdwood in July 1925.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Indigenous RISCV Controller for Space Applications (IRIS), consider the following statements:
1. IRIS has been jointly developed by ISRO and IIT Madras.
2. It is built on the SHAKTI processor baseline, which is based on the RISC-V architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
In a strategic move to strengthen indigenous semiconductors development for the country’s various space-based applications, ISRO and IIT Madras scientists have jointly developed the Indigenous RISCV Controller for Space Applications (IRIS).
IRIS has been built on the SHAKTI processor baseline. This allows a wide deployment onto diverse domains from Internet of Things (IoT) to compute systems that are inbuilt in various strategic areas.
SHAKTI belongs to a class of systems on RISC-IV, which is an open-source Instruction Set Architecture used for designing custom processors. SHAKTI, supported by the Electronics and IT, is a flagship initiative to promote indigenous development of microprocessor-based products offering high-end security for users.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to President Rule, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court comprehensively examined the power to impose President’s Rule and its effect on Centre-state relations in the case of S R Bommai v Union of India.
2. The President’s power to issue a proclamation under Article 356 cannot be subject to judicial review.
3. Manipur and Uttar Pradesh are the states (including UTs) that have spent the most time under central control.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION
Following the resignation of Manipur Chief Minister N Biren Singh on Sunday (February 9), President’s Rule was imposed in the state on Thursday evening, PTI reported by citing a Home Ministry notification.
Article 356 of the Constitution
The imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356 effectively transfers all the functions of the state government to the Centre and the function of the state legislature to Parliament during the period when it is in force. The only exception to this is the functioning of High Courts, which remains unchanged.
Since 1950, when the Constitution first came into force, President’s Rule has been imposed a total of 134 times across 29 states and UTs. It has been imposed most frequently in Manipur and Uttar Pradesh, at 10 times each. However, these are not the states (including UTs) that have spent the most time under central control.
That distinction is held by Jammu & Kashmir, followed by Punjab and Puducherry. Since 1950, Jammu and Kashmir has spent over 12 years (4,668 days) under President’s Rule and Punjab has been under Central control for over 10 years (3,878 days) in the same period. In both states, this is largely owed to recurring spells of militant and separatist activity, and unstable law and order situations.
The most recent imposition of President’s rule was in Puducherry after the Congress government in 2021 lost power failing a vote of confidence. Puducherry has spent over 7 years (2,739 days) under President’s Rule in its history, in large part because of repeated cases of governments losing support in the Assembly thanks to infighting or defections. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Supreme Court on President’s Rule
The Supreme Court comprehensively examined the power to impose President’s Rule and its effect on Centre-state relations in the case of S R Bommai v Union of India (1994). The matter came to court after several instances of the Centre imposing President’s Rule and dismissing the state government. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A nine-judge Bench unanimously held that the President’s power to issue a proclamation under Article 356 was subject to judicial review and courts could examine the decision to see if it suffered from illegality, malafide, extraneous considerations, abuse of power, or fraud. While the SC acknowledged that the court could not weigh in on the correctness of the President’s subjective decision to impose President’s Rule, it could examine whether the material supplied to the President was relevant to the proclamation made. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements regarding the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2024 is incorrect?
(a) The CPI is released by Transparency International.
(b) India ranked 96th out of 180 countries in the CPI 2024.
(c) The index ranks countries based on perceived levels of private sector corruption.
(d) Denmark was ranked as the least corrupt country in the CPI 2024.
EXPLANATION
India ranked 96 out of 180 countries on the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024, according to the Transparency International report released on February 11, 2025. The index, which lists countries by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, ranked Denmark at the top, followed by Finland, and Singapore.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following countries are currently part of BRICS?
1. Iran
2. Ethopia
3. South Africa
4. Egypt
5. Indonesia
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION
US President Donald Trump has said that the US will not trade with BRICS nations and that, even if any trading is done, he will impose a 100 percent tariff on them. He said that BRICS is dead and was created for a bad purpose. Earlier, he demanded a firm commitment from BRICS nations to cease any attempts to create a new currency or back existing currencies in competition with the US dollar.
BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, the original five members who were large, non-Western economies. In January this year, Indonesia officially joined the BRICS as a full member taking total membership to 10. Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates are also part of the bloc. The organisation now represents almost half the world’s population and almost one quarter of the world’s economy.
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following countries are not members of the International Criminal Court (ICC)?
1. United States
2. Russia
3. Israel
4. Myanmar
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
EXPLANATION
Which countries are not members of the ICC?
Although the court is supported by many United Nations members and the European Union, other countries such as the United States, China and Russia are not members, arguing the ICC could be used for politically motivated prosecutions.
Myanmar is not a member of the court, but in 2018 and 2019 judges ruled the court had jurisdiction over alleged cross-border crimes that partially took place in neighbouring ICC-member Bangladesh, such as deportation and persecution, and said prosecutors could open a formal investigation.
Israel is not a member of the court and does not recognise its jurisdiction, but the Palestinian territories were admitted as an ICC member state in 2015. This, together with a ruling by judges, means the court can look at potential war crimes carried out by Hamas fighters in Israel and by Israelis in the Gaza Strip.
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
What is new in the Income Tax Bill, 2025?
1. The bill upholds the concept of “assessment year” (AY), which assesses tax on income earned in the “previous (financial) year” and rejects the suggestion of “tax year”.
2. “Virtual digital space” has been defined in the powers to call for information by income tax authorities.
Which of the above given statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
The Income-tax Bill, 2025, which was introduced in Lok Sabha on Thursday, intends to simplify India’s six-decade-old structure of direct taxation by streamlining provisions, removing obsolete references, and creating a crisper and simpler legal framework.
Once passed by Parliament, the new law will likely come into effect on April 1, 2026.
The Bill introduces the concept of “tax year”, which has been defined as the 12-month period beginning April 1.
In case of a business or a newly-set-up profession, the tax year will begin from the date it was set up, and will end with the said financial year. Income tax will be levied on the basis of the economic activity and income earned in a tax year.
At present, income tax has the concept of “assessment year” (AY), which assesses tax on income earned in the “previous (financial) year”. For instance, income earned in the financial year (FY) 2024-25 (April 1, 2024 to March 31, 2025) is assessed in AY 2025-26 (beginning April 1, 2025).
“Virtual digital space” has been defined in the powers to call for information by income tax authorities during surveys, searches and seizures to include email servers, social media accounts, online investment, trading and banking accounts, remote or cloud servers, and digital application platforms.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
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