© IE Online Media Services Pvt Ltd
Tags:
Journalism of Courage
UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.
With reference to the Status of Elephant in India 2022-23, consider the following statements:
1. There is a sharp decline in elephant populations in the east-central and southern landscapes.
2. The report identifies unmitigated mining and linear infrastructure construction as a significant threat to the species.
3. The new method of counting elephants is based on DNA profiling.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation
— The Environment Ministry has shelved its elephant census report, ‘Status of Elephant in India 2022-23’.
— The report on the current status of the national heritage animal in the rest of India has been printed but its release is now on hold until at least June 2025.
— Data from the unreleased report show a sharp decline in elephant populations in the east-central and southern landscapes. The slide in numbers is especially dramatic in Southern West Bengal (84%), Jharkhand (64%), Odisha (54%), and Kerala (51%). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The report identifies “mushrooming developmental projects” such as “unmitigated mining and linear infrastructure construction” as a significant threat to the species. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— The Environment Ministry has stated that the elephant census used updated methodology, implying that the results may not be comparable to those of previous censuses conducted every five years since the 1990s.
— However, the new counting methods may not entirely explain the decline in elephant populations. “The new method based on DNA profiling has not brought down the numbers in the northern (Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plain) landscape where the latest figure (2,062) closely aligns with the outcome of the previous census (2,096).” Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the National Agriculture Code (NAC), consider the following statements:
1. It will cover the entire agriculture cycle and a guidance note for future standardisation.
2. It will cover pre-harvest operations.
3. It does not include standards for input management like the use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
4. It includes standards for crop storage and traceability.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
— The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has begun the process of formulating a National Agriculture Code (NAC), on the lines of the existing National Building Code and National Electrical Code.
About NAC
— The NAC will cover the entire agriculture cycle, and will also contain a guidance note for future standardisation. The NAC will serve as a guide for farmers, agriculture universities, and officials involved in the field. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The code will have two parts. The first will contain general principles for all crops, and the second will deal with crop-specific standards for the likes of paddy, wheat, oilseeds, and pulses.
— In addition to standards for agriculture machinery, the NAC will cover all agriculture processes and post-harvest operations, such as crop selection, land preparation, sowing/transplanting, irrigation/drainage, soil health management, plant health management, harvesting/threshing, primary processing, post-harvest, sustainability, and record maintenance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— It will also include standards for input management, like use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides, and weedicides, as well as standards for crop storage and traceability. Hence, statement 3 is not correct and statement 4 is correct.
— Crucially, the NAC will cover all new and emerging areas like natural farming and organic farming, as well as the use of Internet-of-Things in the field of agriculture.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements:
1. It was formed in 1996 as the “Shanghai Five”.
2. The recent permanent member of SCO is Iran.
3. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) ‘Heads of Government’ (HoG) 2024 meeting will be held in Delhi.
4. The organisation deals with security issues and has all Asian members.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
— External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar will travel to Islamabad, Pakistan, to attend the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) ‘Heads of Government’ (HoG) meeting on October 15-16. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— Its origins lie in the “Shanghai Five”, formed in 1996 and consisting of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— SCO was established on June 15, 2001, in Shanghai as an international organisation, and also included Uzbekistan as a sixth member. Before the inclusion of Belarus, it had nine members: India, Iran, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. (Belarus is the recent permanent member)
— SCO is one of the few international bodies that deal with security matters, and it is mostly composed of Asian countries. Belarus is the only European country in the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
— The addition of India and Pakistan into the SCO in 2017 was interpreted as reflecting this jostling. While Russia supported India’s admission as a long-term strategic partner, China backed its ally Pakistan to keep the balance of power from shifting in Russia’s favour.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The region Plateau Rosa, the Carrel refuge, and the Gobba di Rollin were in news. They are located on the border of:
(a) Italy-Germany
(b) Finland-Norway
(c) Austria-Germany
(d) Switzerland-Italy
Explanation
— Switzerland and Italy have decided to redefine a portion of their territorial boundaries due to melting Alpine glaciers caused by anthropogenic climate change.
— Large areas of the boundary between Italy and Switzerland are marked by “the watershed or ridge lines of glaciers, firn, or perpetual snow,” according to the Swiss authorities. However, as global warming accelerates glacial melting, these ridge lines shift, disrupting the existing border.
— The border between the two countries is being redrawn beneath the renowned Matterhorn, one of Europe’s tallest peaks that has long drawn alpinists and mountaineers.
— Switzerland and Italy have agreed on revisions to the Plateau Rosa, Carrel refuge, and Gobba di Rollin landmarks. This is where Switzerland’s Zermatt region meets Italy’s Aosta valley. The region is home to various ski resorts, which contribute to both countries’ economies.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the new rules of SEBI to curb the F&O framework, consider the following statements:
1. The minimum contract size at the time of its introduction in the market has been recalibrated to Rs 15 lakh from the existing stipulation of Rs 5-10 lakh.
2. SEBI has increased the ‘tail risk’ coverage by levying an additional ‘Extreme Loss Margin’ (ELM) of 2% for short options contracts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
New Rules
— Contract size for index derivatives recalibrated: The minimum contract size at the time of its introduction in the market has been recalibrated to Rs 15 lakh from the existing stipulation of Rs 5-10 lakh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Upfront collection of options premium: To deny undue intra-day leverage to the end client, and discourage the practice of allowing positions beyond the collateral at the end client-level, SEBI has mandated the collection of options premium upfront from options buyers by the trading member (TM) or the clearing member (CM). The new rule will be applicable from February 1, 2025.
—Rationalisation of weekly index derivatives products: SEBI has said that expiry-day trading in index options at a time when option premiums are low, is largely speculative. Stock exchanges offer short-tenure options contracts on indices which expire on every day of the week, leading to hyperactive trading in index options on expiry day.
—Intra-day monitoring of position limits: Amid large volumes of trading on expiry day, there is a possibility of undetected intra-day positions beyond permissible limits. “To address the risk of position creation beyond permissible limits…existing position limits for equity index derivatives shall henceforth also be monitored intra-day by exchanges,” SEBI said. This will be effective from April 1, 2025.
—Removal of ‘calendar spread’ treatment on expiry day: Expiry day can see significant ‘basis’ risk, where the value of a contract expiring on the day can move very differently from the value of similar contracts expiring in future.
—Increase in ‘tail risk’ coverage on day of expiry: The regulator has increased the ‘tail risk’ coverage by levying an additional ‘Extreme Loss Margin’ (ELM) of 2% for short options contracts. ELM is the margin that exchanges charge over and above the normal margin requirement. Tail risk is the chance of a loss due to a rare event. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are the applications of the supercomputers?
1. Quantum mechanics
2. Weather forecasting
3. Oil and gas exploration
4. Data analytics and big data
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
— Prime Minister Narendra Modi on September 26 inaugurated three PARAM Rudra supercomputers worth Rs 130 crore. The Prime Minister said that the supercomputers will help provide “state-of-the-art advanced facilities to the scientific community” in India, and that it will help advance research in fields ranging from “physics and cosmology to earth sciences”.
— The three new supercomputers, developed in-house by the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), are located in Pune, Delhi, and Kolkata and comprise a High-Performance Computing (HPC) system designed specifically for weather and climate research.
— A supercomputer is a large computing system specifically designed to solve complex, scientific and industrial challenges, which tend to be time-consuming and computation-intensive.
— They are used in quantum mechanics, weapons research, weather forecasting and climate research, oil and gas exploration, molecular dynamics and physical simulations, data analytics and big data — all of which require a high computing capacity which are unavailable with regular systems.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Solar eclipse, consider the following pairs:
| Type of solar eclipse | Description |
| Total solar eclipse | When the Moon blocks the Sun entirely. |
| Annular solar eclipse | When the Moon blocks just a part of the Sun, giving it a crescent shape. |
| Partial solar eclipse | When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth. |
| Hybrid solar eclipse | When an eclipse shifts between annular and total as the shadow of the Moon moves across the globe. |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pairs
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Explanation
— An annular solar eclipse will be visible in parts of South America on Wednesday (October 2), while a partial solar eclipse will be visible in parts of South America, Antarctica, North America, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Pacific Ocean, including Hawaii.
— A solar eclipse takes place when the Moon moves in the middle of the Earth and the Sun. The Moon blocks the light of the Sun, either fully or partially, which casts a huge shadow on some parts of the world.
— There are four different types of solar eclipses, including total solar eclipse, annular solar eclipse, partial solar eclipse, and hybrid solar eclipse.
| Type of solar eclipse | Description |
| Total solar eclipse | When the Moon blocks the Sun entirely |
| Annular solar eclipse | When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth. |
| Partial solar eclipse | When the Moon blocks just a part of the Sun, giving it a crescent shape. |
| Hybrid solar eclipse | When an eclipse shifts between annular and total as the shadow of the Moon moves across the globe. |
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), consider the following statements:
1. The OCI scheme provides for registration of all Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were citizens of India on January 26, 1950, or thereafter, or were eligible to become citizens of India on the said date.
2. An OCI card holder is essentially a foreign passport holder who gets a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India, and is exempt from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in the country.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
— In response to many Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card holders worrying about being classed as “foreigners,” the Ministry of External Affairs announced on Saturday (September 28) that no changes had been made to the OCI rules.
— OCI card was introduced in August 2005. The OCI scheme provides for registration of all Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were citizens of India on January 26, 1950, or thereafter, or were eligible to become citizens of India on the said date. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— An OCI card holder — essentially a foreign passport holder — gets a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India, and is exempt from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— According to government figures, there were over 45 lakh registered OCI card holders from 129 countries in 2023. The US topped the list with nearly 16.8 lakh OCI card holders, followed by the UK (9.34 lakh), Australia (4.94 lakh), and Canada (4.18 lakh).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Kosi River, consider the following statements:
1. It is formed by the confluence of three streams namely the Sun Kosi, the Arun Kosi and Tamur Kosi.
2. It is well known for its tendency to change its course generally in westward direction.
3. The Kosi River basin is bounded on the west by the Mahananda basin.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
— According to the state government’s Flood Management Improvement Support Centre (FMISC), “Bihar is India’s most flood-prone state, with 76 per cent of the population in north Bihar living under the recurring threat of flood devastation.”
— A major reason for the first three kinds of flooding is that Bihar is located below Nepal, with its Himalayan rivers flowing down to the state. Because the Himalayas are a young mountain range with a lot of loose soil, these rivers — Kosi, Gandak, Burhi Gandak, Bagmati, Kamla Balan, Mahananda, Adhwara — are full of sediments.
— The Kosi basin is bordered on the north by the Himalayas, on the east by the Mahananda basin, on the west by the Burhi Gandak basin and on the south by the river Ganga. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— Three streams—the Sun Kosi, the Arun Kosi, and the Tamur Kosi—converge to form the River Kosi. These streams originate in the Himalayan regions of Nepal and Tibet. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The Kosi is widely recognised for its tendency to shift its course mainly in westward direction. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: indiawris.gov.in)
Consider the following statements about the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM):
1. It was launched on October 2, 2016.
2. SBM focus areas were building individual and community toilets and solid waste management.
3. The SBM-Urban for cities is executed by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation
— Swachh Bharat Mission, one of the first programmes announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi after he took office in 2014, completes 10 years on October 2. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— The mission was divided into SBM-Gramin for villages, and SBM-Urban for cities, executed by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation, and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs respectively. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— SBM’s focus areas were building individual toilets, community toilets, solid waste management, and leading awareness campaigns aimed at behavioural changes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— The PM announced that the SBM’s main goal was to make India “Open defecation-free” (ODF) by October 2, 2019, for which crores of household and community toilets had to be constructed. The definition of ODF under the mission is as follows: “A city/ ward can be notified/ declared as an ODF city/ ODF ward if, at any point of the day, not a single person is found defecating in the open.”
— The goal was to provide individual toilets to all houses, cluster toilets for communities, and waste management systems in school and anganwadi toilets. Solid waste encompasses both organic and inorganic items (kitchen waste, plastics, metals, etc.), whereas liquid waste management is concerned with wastewater that is no longer safe for human consumption.
— To do this, the government boosted its aid from Rs 10,000 per toilet (under the previous UPA government’s Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan) to Rs 12,000 under the SBM program. When the mission’s five-year period ended in 2021, the government launched SBM 2.0, which focused on garbage-free cities, faecal sludge, plastic waste, and greywater management.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Assam Accord, consider the following statements:
1. It was a Memorandum of Settlement between the Union government and the leadership of the Assam Movement, primarily the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU).
2. It was signed in 1965.
3. The Assam accord ended the six-year-long agitation in Assam against the entry of Bangladeshi migrants into the state.
4. There is no clause to protect, preserve and promote the culture and heritage of the Assamese people.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
— After a meeting with representatives of the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) on Wednesday, Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma set the ball rolling for the implementation of 52 recommendations of the Justice Biplab Sarma Committee regarding Clause 6 of the Assam Accord, as announced by the Assam government earlier this month.
— The historic Assam Accord was a Memorandum of Settlement between the Rajiv Gandhi-led Union government and the leadership of the Assam Movement, primarily the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The Assam Accord was signed in 1985. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— The accord ended the six-year-long agitation in Assam against the entry of Bangladeshi migrants into the state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— The state government has accepted 1951 as the “cut-off date” for the specific recommendations of the report. He said, however, that this definition of “Assamese people” is confined to only the context of the report’s recommendations.
— The 52 recommendations in the first two categories will be implemented by April 2025, for which the state government will submit a roadmap to AASU by October 25 this year. These 52 recommendations largely deal with safeguards on language, land, and cultural heritage.
— Clause 6 of the accord states that “Constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards, as may be appropriate, shall be provided to protect, preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people.” Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to ‘classical languages’ of India, consider the following statements:
1. Sanskrit became the first Indian language to receive “classical” status due to its high antiquity and rich literary tradition.
2. High antiquity of early texts, and recorded history over a period of 1500- 2000 years is one of the criteria to declare a language as a classical language.
3. Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali are the latest additions to the classical languages list.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Explanation
— The Union Cabinet on Thursday extended the “classical language” tag to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia already enjoy this status. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
When and how did the concept of “classical language” arise?
— Following demands from various states, the UPA-1 government decided to create a category of Indian languages known as “classical languages”, and lay down various criteria for this status.
— On October 12, 2004, Tamil became the first Indian language to receive “classical” status due to its high antiquity and rich literary tradition. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— The Ministry of Culture set up a Linguistic Experts Committee (LEC) under the Sahitya Akademi to examine proposals for “classical language” status from various states and bodies.
— On November 25, Sanskrit was declared a classical language. Subsequently, this status was conferred upon Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
What are the latest criteria for “classical languages”?
— On July 25 this year, the LEC unanimously revised the criteria for classical status. The criteria now include:
(i) High antiquity of early texts, and recorded history over a period of 1500- 2000 years; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(ii) A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a heritage by generations of speakers;
(iii) Epigraphic and inscriptional evidence;
(iv) Knowledge texts, especially prose texts in addition to poetry; and
(v) That classical languages and literature could be distinct from their current form or could be discontinuous with later forms of its offshoots.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
David’s Sling, Arrow 2 and 3, and the Iron Beam are seen in news with reference to:
(a) Sports
(b) Astronomy
(c) Geomorphology
(d) None of the above
Explanation
— The bloody conflict in West Asia escalated further on October 1 when Iran rained down missiles on Israel, and the Jewish nation said it would strike back.
— While Tehran said most of its missiles hit their targets, Israel said many were intercepted by its air defence systems.
— Israel’s air defence system is multi-layered, to protect against missiles fired from short distances (like by Hamas) to longer ranges (missiles that fly outside the Earth’s atmosphere, likely to be fired by nations further away from Israel, such as Iran).
— The Iron Dome is the best-known, but this time, according to the BBC, other elements of the country’s defence systems “probably did the bulk of the work.”
— Apart from the Iron Dome, David’s Sling, Arrow 2 and 3, and the Iron Beam protect Israel from missiles.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Chagos and Diego Garcia, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. The UK has long controlled Chagos and the Diego Garcia military base, jointly operating it with the United States.
2. The United States has recently said it would cede sovereignty of the strategically important Chagos Islands and Diego Garcia to Mauritius.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
— The UK has long controlled Chagos and the Diego Garcia military base located there, jointly operating it with the United States. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The United Kingdom on Thursday (October 3) said it would cede sovereignty of the strategically important Chagos Islands to Mauritius, calling it a “historic political agreement”.
— The agreement between the UK and Mauritius strikes a balance. The UK has ceded claims over the islands, and Mauritius is now “free to implement a programme of resettlement on the islands of the Chagos Archipelago, other than Diego Garcia”. The UK has also promised to create a new trust fund “for the benefit of Chagossians”.
— However, the agreement allows the Diego Garcia base to remain operational for an “initial period” of 99 years. The UK will continue to exercise sovereign rights over the island. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Who among the following has been named as the recipient of the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2024?
(a) Kamal Haasan
(b) Waheeda Rehman
(d) Dharmendra
Explanation
— Actor-politician Mithun Chakraborty has been named as the recipient of the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award, which is the highest government honour accorded for contributions in the field of cinema.
— The three-time National Award winner, who is one of the very few to have won the Best Actor win on debut, is a veteran of over 350 films in Hindi, Bengali, Bhojpuri, Odia, Telugu, and Tamil.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 22 to September 28, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 15 to September 21, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 08 to September 14, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | September 01 to September 07, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 25 to August 31, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 18 to August 24, 2024
Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.
Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.
