© IE Online Media Services Pvt Ltd
Tags:
Journalism of Courage
UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.
With reference to the Silicosis, consider the following statements:
1. It is a respiratory disease which causes a hardening of the lungs.
2. It is caused when people work at construction or mining sites.
3. This disease has no cure.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
— Silicosis is a respiratory illness that hardens the lungs. It is caused by silica dust or crystals found in soil, sand, concrete, mortar, granite, and artificial stone. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— It is widely used in building, mining, oil and gas extraction, kitchen engineering, dentistry, pottery, and sculpture. People who work in these occupations are frequently exposed to silica on a daily basis, which increases their chance of acquiring silicosis. The sickness, for example, has caused havoc in small mining towns in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— Silicosis is a degenerative disease with no cure. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— Silicosis can develop slowly, usually after 10 to 20 years of work exposure to silica dust.
— Silicosis can cause other dangerous diseases, such as lung cancer, although scientists are unsure how this occurs. Some believe that silica dust creates deposits in the lungs, which cause persistent irritation.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following sports:
1. Wrestling
2. Judo
3. Equestrian
4. Taekwondo
5. Curling
Which of the following games given above are played according to the weight categories?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation
— Wrestler Vinesh Phogat was disqualified from the Paris Olympics following the official weigh-in on Wednesday morning, ahead of her anticipated gold medal battle that evening. She will return from Paris without receiving a medal.
— While she passed the weigh-in on Tuesday, Vinesh was discovered to be “a few grammes over 50 kg” at the Wednesday morning weigh-in.
— Weight divisions divide combat sports such as wrestling, boxing, judo, taekwondo, weightlifting, and mixed martial arts (MMA).
— Equestrian and Curling are not played as weight division.
— Because athletes of similar weight (and thus size) are expected to have similar physical characteristics, weight classes are intended to create a reasonably level playing field in which larger and bulkier competitors do not compete with smaller ones.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the pyrocumulonimbus clouds, consider the following statements:
1. They are formed only when there is an extremely hot wildfire or a volcanic eruption.
2. These clouds can trigger strong winds that can make the spread of the wildfire faster.
3. These clouds are situated at low heights and depend on other clouds to generate thunderstorms.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation
— The current wildfires in the United States and Canada are so fierce that they have produced ‘pyrocumulonimbus’ clouds, which have the ability to spit out thunder and cause other fires.
— They only appear when there is an exceptionally hot wildfire; volcanic eruptions can also result in the development of pyrocumulonimbus clouds. Not all wildfires produce pyrocumulonimbus clouds. For example, these clouds arose during the Australian bushfires in 2019-2020, when temperatures reached 800 degrees Celsius. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The strong heat from the fire warms the surrounding air, which rises into the atmosphere. As this heated, buoyant air—carrying water vapour, smoke, and ash—rises, it expands and cools. Once cool enough, water vapour condenses on the ash, forming a grey or brown cloud. At this point, the cloud is known as a pyrocumulus cloud, or ‘fire cloud’. However, if there is enough water vapour available and the upward movement of hot air intensifies, pyrocumulus clouds can develop into pyrocumulonimbus clouds.
— These clouds can reach heights of 50,000 feet and produce their own thunderstorms. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— Although pyrocumulonimbus clouds can cause lightning, they do not produce much rain.
— These clouds can also cause high gusts, making the wildfire spread faster and more unpredictable. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the manganese nodules, consider the following statements:
1. They are found in the deep sea.
2. They are also known as polymetallic nodules.
3. It forms in a very short period of time providing extensive sources.
4. It forms the key component of electric car batteries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
— The ocean floor contains large amounts of metals and rare earths. However, harvesting these lucrative materials could permanently harm fragile marine ecosystems.
— The International Seabed Authority, or ISA, is developing a set of regulations to govern the exploitation of raw resources from the ocean below.
— Several states, notably Germany, Brazil, and the Pacific island nation of Palau, have stated that they would not consent to the new standards until the environmental impact has been thoroughly explored. China, Norway, Japan, and the Central Pacific microstate Nauru have all pushed for a rapid resolution so that mining companies can begin implementing their plans.
— Deep Sea Mining corporations are especially interested in polymetallic nodules, often known as manganese nodules. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
— These potato-sized lumps, formed over millions of years from silt deposits, are primarily made of manganese, cobalt, copper, and nickel, basic minerals used in electric car batteries. Hence, statement 3 is not correct and statement 4 is correct.
— As the globe transitions to renewable energy, the International Energy Agency predicts the demand for these metals to double by 2040.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Several EU member states such as Austria, Hungary and Slovakia are still heavily dependent on Russian gas via the Ukrainian transit route.
Statement-II:
The European Union has significantly increased the amount of Russian gas it imports, from its supply in 2021 to 2024.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
— Lukoil and other suppliers continue to deliver Russian crude oil to Hungary, Slovakia, and the Czech Republic via the southern branch of the Druzhba pipeline, which goes via Ukraine.
— Russian gas was never officially sanctioned by the EU, and it has long posed a unique problem. In the first half of 2024, EU member states bought €11 billion worth of Russian oil and gas, with €3.6 billion from liquefied natural gas (LNG) and €4.8 billion from pipeline natural gas.
— The EU has considerably cut the amount of Russian gas it imports, from approximately 40% in 2021 to 15% in 2024. However, other EU member states, like Austria, Hungary, and Slovakia, continue to rely heavily on Russian gas via the Ukrainian transit route, according to CREA. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The term “carry trade” refers to:
(a) When money is borrowed from a country where interest rates are low and invested in a country where interest rates are high.
(b) Transfer of goods and services in a country’s currency system not in US dollars.
(c) When money is borrowed from a country where interest rates are high and invested in a country where interest rates are low.
(d) Trade between the countries excluding the trade of services.
Explanation
— Global investors are constantly looking for methods to make money. One method is to borrow money in a country with low interest rates and then invest it (after changing the currency) in a country with substantially higher interest rates. Simply defined, this is a carry trade.
— Such possibilities can arise because central banks in many nations strive to keep interest rates at a level that is appropriate for their own economic conditions.
— An example is Japan, where the central bank (the Bank of Japan) kept interest rates at zero percent between 2011 and 2016, and has actually lowered them even lower (-0.10%) since 2016. The goal behind low interest rates is to boost economic activity.
— Higher interest rates in Japan caused the yen to strengthen versus the dollar and most other emerging country currencies. Over the last week, the yen’s exchange rate has risen versus currencies such as the dollar, real, rupee, and peso.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Clean Plant Programme, consider the following statements:
1. The programme has been launched under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
2. The initiative will ensure superior produce with enhanced taste, appearance and nutritional value.
3. It will not provide access to virus-free and high-quality planting materials.
4. The programme will be implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
— The Cabinet approved the Rs 1,766 crore Clean Plant Programme (CPP) under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH). The mission will be implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 4 is not correct.
— The CPP will enable access to virus-free, high-quality planting material, resulting in higher agricultural yields and better earning opportunities.
— The program will ensure that consumers receive high-quality, virus-free food, improving the taste, appearance, and nutritional content of fruit. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
— The Programme will prioritise inexpensive access to clean plant material for all farmers, regardless of land size or socioeconomic background.
— The Programme will actively involve women farmers in its design and implementation, ensuring that they have access to resources, training, and decision-making power.
— The Programme will handle India’s different agroclimatic conditions by producing clean plant varieties and technology tailored to each region.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The proposed Malwa canal was recently in news. This new irrigation channel will be developed in:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation
— Almost seven decades after the Bhakra Main Line (BML), Sirhind Feeder, and Bist Doab canals were built in the mid-1950s, Punjab plans to invest Rs 2,300 crore on a new irrigation route that will span around 150 km north-south in the state’s south-western portion.
— The projected 149.53-kilometer canal is named after Malwa, the largest and politically most important of Punjab’s three geographical and cultural areas, which spans the whole southern half of the state.
— The projected 50-foot-wide, 12-foot-deep canal will begin at the Harike Headworks on the Sutlej River in Ferozepur district and convey 2,000 cusecs of water.
— The proposed canal will end at Warring Khera hamlet in Muktsar district, near the Haryana border, and will run parallel to the Sirhind Feeder and Rajasthan Feeder canals, to the latter’s east. The canal, which is expected to take five years to complete, is intended to irrigate 2 lakh acres of land across seven districts.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the bioindicator, consider the following statements:
1. It is a living organism that gives us an idea of the health of an ecosystem.
2. It provides the effects of different pollutants in the ecosystem.
3. Copepods are an example of a bioindicator.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
— Frogs are very important bioindicators, their presence or absence signals the state of the environment.
— A living thing that provides information about the condition of an environment is called a bioindicator. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Certain species are highly susceptible to environmental contamination. The organism may exhibit altered morphology, physiology, behaviour, or even death.
— Copepods and other small water crustaceans, which are found in many water bodies, are one type of bioindicator. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— In contrast to physical and chemical tests, bioindicators can provide information on the cumulative effects of various pollutants in the ecosystem as well as the potential duration of a problem. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), consider the following statements:
1. It is a flagship program of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports which was started in 2014.
2. The Mission Olympic Cell is a dedicated body created to assist the athletes who are selected under the TOPS.
3. Beside foreign training and International competition, it provides the athletes with a monthly stipend of Rs 100,000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Explanation
— The government is currently nurturing 1,050 individuals selected under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), covering all costs associated with training, equipment, and international participation.
— The government has three initiatives in place to uncover and foster grassroots talent while also providing opportunities for them to play at the national and international levels.
— Under Khelo India, the government established a centre in each district. It also organises state and national events for school and college students aged 14 and up.
— There is a KIRTI programme (Khelo India Rising Talent Identification) that recognises talents in schools and institutions.
— Currently, a talent discovery procedure is underway in the country, with one lakh talented athletes to be identified.
— The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) launched the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) in September 2014 to improve India’s performance at the Olympics and Paralympics. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The initiative is fully operational and has been providing all necessary support to potential athletes identified for the 2020 Olympic and Paralympic Games, including foreign training, international competition, equipment, and coaching camps, in addition to a monthly stipend of Rs. 50,000/- for each athlete. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— The Mission Olympic Cell (MOC) is a specific entity designed to help athletes who have been selected under the TOP Scheme.The MOC is chaired by the Director General of the Sports Authority (DG SAI). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: sportsauthorityofindia.nic.in)
Three underwater geographical structures have been renamed as Ashoka seamount, Chandragupt ridge and Kalpataru ridge. These geographical structures are located in:
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Andaman Sea
Explanation
— Three undersea geological structures in the Indian Ocean have been given names proposed by India.
— The Ashoka Seamount and Chandragupt Ridge are named after Mauryan dynasty emperors. Kalpataru Ridge is the third feature for which the International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) and UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) have recently assigned names originally given by India.
— There are now seven structures in the Indian Ocean, mostly named after Indian scientists or names offered by India in this region.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Ayushman Bharat, consider the following statements:
1. It is a scheme to provide health cover up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year.
2. The scheme has been rolled out for the bottom 40 per cent of the population.
3. The inclusion of households is based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011.
4. The scheme is particularly for rural areas and not for urban areas.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
— Analysis of unit-level data from the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES 2022-23) has revealed a dramatic decline in the incidence of poverty since 2011-12.
— Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) is a scheme to provide health coverage or health insurance of up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— PM-JAY has been rolled out for the bottom 40 per cent of the poor and vulnerable population, targeting approximately 12 crore households. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— The inclusion of households is based on criteria mentioned in the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011 for rural and urban areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following diseases:
1. Heart disease
2. Salmonella
3. Chronic lung disease
4. Measles
How many of the above diseases are examples of Non-Communicable diseases?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
— A software developed by doctors and technicians at AIIMS in Delhi is an important initiative. A digitally connected healthcare ecosystem might enhance treatment outcomes, particularly in rural India, where a shortage of specialists frequently prevents early diagnosis and therapy.
— Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), often known as chronic diseases, are non-transmissible diseases that often last a long time.
— NCDs include mental health issues, strokes, heart disease, cancer, diabetes, and chronic lung disease. NCDs are predicted to be responsible for one in every two disability-affected life years and one in every five deaths among adolescents worldwide.
— Salmonella and Measles are communicable diseases.
— The majority of the NCD disability burden among teenagers is attributable to mental health issues.
— NCDs are generally caused by behaviours that commonly begin in childhood and adolescence, such as physical inactivity, an unhealthy diet, tobacco use, and problematic alcohol consumption.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: data.unicef.org)
Consider the following:
1. Allowing a non-Muslim chief executive officer and at least two non-Muslim members to be appointed by the state government to the Waqf Boards at the state level.
2. Allow the district collector to act as the arbiter on whether a property is Waqf property or government land.
Which of the above are the proposed changes of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill 2024?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
— The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, which renames the Waqf Act, 1995, as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act, 1995, states that in response to recommendations from various committees, including the Rajinder Sachar Committee and the Joint Parliamentary Committee on Waqf Council, it has become “necessary” to amend the Act in order to overcome shortcomings and improve the efficiency of Waqf property administration and management.
— The Waqf (Amendment) Bill proposes numerous significant reforms, including permitting the state government to select a non-Muslim chief executive officer and at least two non-Muslim members to state-level Waqf boards. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— It is also proposed that the district collector serve as the adjudicator of whether a property is Waqf or government land. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— A Waqf is a personal property donated by Muslims for a specific purpose, whether religious, philanthropic, or private. While the beneficiaries of the property may differ, ownership of the property is assumed to be with God.
— Waqf properties in India are controlled by the Waqf Act of 1995. However, India has had a legal framework for managing Waqfs since 1913, when the Muslim Waqf Validating Act went into effect.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following states have approved to notify the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Chhattisgarh
Explanation
— A long-pending proposal to designate a new tiger reserve, the third largest in the nation, was approved by Chhattisgarh after the state’s tiger population fell precipitously in recent years.
— The fourth big cat reserve in Chhattisgarh is the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve, which combines a wildlife sanctuary with an existing national park. It covers 2,829 square kilometres over four of the state’s northern districts.
— The tiger population in Chhattisgarh decreased from 46 in 2014 to 17 in 2022, according to a National Tiger Conservation Authority assessment released in July 2023.
— The establishment of this tiger reserve will promote eco-tourism in the state and provide job possibilities for people living in the core and buffer zones as guides, tourist vehicle operators, and resort managers. Furthermore, the National Project Tiger Authority will provide additional money for the reserve’s operations, allowing new livelihood development projects in the nearby villages.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 28 to August 03, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 21 to July 27, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 14 to July 20, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 07 to July 13, 2024
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 30 to July 06, 2024
Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.
Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NLF5t533dYo?si=JPMLwXkQu8PgfgjX
