UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on Autonomous District Councils, Rajya Sabha and more (Week 130)

QUESTION 1

With reference to the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), consider the following statements:

1. Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions — ADCs.

2. They have up to 30 members with a term of five years.

3. They are not empowered to make rules on village and town-level policing.

4. Tripura has the maximum ADCs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions — Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — that have some legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy within a state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— ADCs have up to 30 members with a term of five years, and can make laws, rules and regulations with regard to land, forest, water, agriculture, village councils, health, sanitation, village- and town-level policing, inheritance, marriage and divorce, social customs and mining, etc. The Bodoland Territorial Council in Assam is an exception with more than 40 members and the right to make laws on 39 issues. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct..

— The Sixth Schedule applies to the Northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram (three Councils each), and Tripura (one Council). Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the difference between civil and criminal defamation, consider the following statements:

1. Under civil law, defamation is treated as a private wrong which can be remedied through compensation for any damage to a person’s reputation.

2. Under criminal law, defamation is treated as a public offence which can be punished with either a fine or imprisonment to deter malicious attacks on reputation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Supreme Court observed that it may be time for the courts to decriminalise defamation. The bench of Justice M M Sundresh and Justice Satish Chandra Sharma was hearing a criminal defamation matter filed by a JNU professor against an article published by The Wire in 2016.

— Defamation involves publishing a statement without lawful justification that injures another’s reputation by subjecting them to hatred, ridicule, or contempt.

— Under civil law, defamation is treated as a private wrong which can be remedied through compensation for any damage to a person’s reputation. However, under criminal law, defamation is treated as a public offence which can be punished with either a fine or imprisonment to deter malicious attacks on reputation. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— For criminal liability, three elements must exist: the statement must be defamatory; it must be directed at a person or a clearly identifiable group; and it must be published or communicated to at least one person other than the person who is making the claim.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:

1. From 1937 to January 26, 1950, it was known as the Federal Public Service Commission.

2. It is a statutory body.

3. The first Public Service Commission was set up under the Government of India Act, 1935.

4. Its mandate is to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— At the time it was founded on October 1, 1926, under the Government of India Act, 1919, the UPSC was known as the Public Service Commission. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Before its current name, between 1937 and January 26, 1950, it was called the Federal Public Service Commission (FPSC). On October 1 this year, the highest recruiter of officials to the Indian government will enter its centenary year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— A constitutional body, its mandate under Article 320 (outlines the functions of Public Service Commissions) is “to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and …State respectively”. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 4 is correct.

— A new proposal under the Government of India Act, 1935, established a Commission for both the federation and each province or group of provinces. By the time this new format — the Federal Public Service Commission (FPSC) — rolled out on April 1, 1937, and Sir Eyre Gordon took over from Sir David Petrie as its chairperson.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements is not correct about the Rajya Sabha?

(a) It is the Upper House of the Indian Parliament.

(b) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

(c) It consists of the representatives of the States and the Union Territories and persons nominated by the President of India.

(d) The Rajya Sabha was duly constituted for the first time in 1956.

Explanation

— Council of States, i.e Rajya Sabha, is the Upper House of the Indian Parliament.

— Rajya Sabha consists of the representatives of the States and the Union Territories and persons nominated by the President of India.

— The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha also chooses from amongst its Members, a Deputy Chairman. In the absence of the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman presides.

— The Rajya Sabha is the permanent body of the Indian Parliament that represents the states and union territories, with the first members elected in 1952, and its first session took place on May 13, 1952.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: sansad.in)

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements:

1. India has a codified private international law for dealing with disputes concerning people who live in different countries.

2. Foreign divorce decrees are not automatically valid in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— India does not have a codified private international law for dealing with disputes concerning people who live in different countries. In its absence, judges fall back on existing statutes and past rulings. For marriages performed under the Hindu Marriage Act, the position has been clear: the personal law continues to govern the dissolution of marriage, no matter where the couple later lives, or their citizenship. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Foreign divorce decrees are not automatically valid in India. Two provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) are central to this — Sections 13 and 14. The former states that a foreign judgment is conclusive, unless it falls within certain exceptions. These include cases where the judgment was delivered by a court without jurisdiction, was not on the merits, or applied a law not recognised in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Section 14 provides that a foreign judgment is presumed valid unless the contrary is proved, but this presumption is easily rebutted with Section 13.

— Additionally, the Hindu Marriage Act specifies the limited grounds on which a Hindu marriage may be dissolved, including cruelty, adultery, desertion, or mutual consent. Thus, the Gujarat HC held that the Australian decree could not be recognised.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 125)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 129)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 129)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 129)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 129)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 129)

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