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UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on Right to Education, Indian citizenship and more (Week 125)

Are you preparing for UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims? Check your progress and revise your topics through this quiz on Polity and Governance.

UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance (Week 125)Check your progress and revise your topics through this quiz on Polity and Governance. Find a question on the Right to Education in today's quiz. (Image for representational purpose)

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.

🚨Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for August 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

QUESTION 1

The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025 seeks to provide for the removal of the Prime Minister, a Chief Minister of a state, or any other Minister in the central or a state government, if he is arrested and detained in custody on account of serious criminal offences. If the bill is passed, then amendments will be made in:

1. Article 75

2. Article 84

3. Article 164

4. Article 239AA

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Home Minister Amit Shah introduced in Lok Sabha a significant constitutional amendment that seeks to remove a central or state Minister who is facing allegations of corruption or serious offences and has been detained for at least 30 days consecutively.

— The Constitution (One Hundred And Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025 and two related statutory amendments to reflect the proposed changes for Union Territories have been referred to a joint committee of Parliament for review.

— According to the PRS, it seeks to provide for removal of the Prime Minister, a Chief Minister of a state, or any other Minister in the central or a state government, if he is arrested and detained in custody on account of serious criminal offences. It also applies these provisions to the Union Territory (UT) of Delhi.

— The Bill proposes amendments to Articles 75, 164, and 239AA of the Constitution, which deal with the Union Council of Ministers, Council of Ministers in the states, and Ministers in Union Territories, respectively.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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QUESTION 2

With reference to the Right to Education (RTE), consider the following statements:

1. The RTE Act makes education a fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14 and specifies minimum norms in elementary schools.

2. Right to Education can be curtailed by imposing a condition regarding the age limit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Observing that the right to education cannot be curtailed by imposing an age limit, the Madhya Pradesh High court allowed an 11-year-old boy with an impressive IQ and academic record to attend class 9 after his school refused to admit him due to his age.

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— Justice Vishal Mishra observed that “Right to Education cannot be curtailed by imposing a condition regarding age limit.” Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Right to Education

— The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009, which describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21a of the Indian Constitution.

— The Act makes education a fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14 and specifies minimum norms in elementary schools. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It requires all private schools to reserve 25% of seats to children (to be reimbursed by the state as part of the public-private partnership plan).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: righttoeducation.in)

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QUESTION 3

With reference to the Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Vice-President shall be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.

2. He/She holds the third-highest elective office in the country after the President and Prime Minister.

3. Under the provisions of Article 67 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date of election.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

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— The election to the post of Vice President, which fell vacant with the sudden resignation of Jagdeep Dhankhar on July 21, is set to be conducted on September 9.

— As per Article 66 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by the members of the Electoral College consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

— The Vice-President shall be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— He/She holds the second highest elective office in the country and is elected in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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— Under the provisions of Article 67 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he/she enters upon his/her office. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.eci.gov.in)

QUESTION 4

The Indian citizenship, as per the provisions of the Registration, includes:

1. Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.

2. Persons who are married to a citizen of India and who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.

3. Minor children whose both parents are Indian citizens.

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4. Persons of full age and capacity who have been registered as an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) for five years and residing in India for one year.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Indian citizenship can be acquired by birth, descent, registration, and naturalization.

— India does not allow dual citizenship, and taking up the citizenship of another country automatically results in the cancellation of Indian citizenship.

By Registration

Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.

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— Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in any country or place outside undivided India.

Persons who are married to a citizen of India and who are ordinarily resident in India for seven years.

Minor children whose both parents are Indian citizens.

— Persons of full age whose both parents are registered as citizens of India.

Persons of full age and capacity who have been registered as an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) for five years and residing in India for one year.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Unrecognised Parties, consider the following statements:

1. They are entitled to an exclusive allotment of a reserved election symbol.

2. They are eligible to get free copies of the electoral rolls, free authorisation for broadcast/telecast facilities over All India Radio/Doordarshan during the Assembly and general elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

It is not mandatory to register with the Election Commission but registered political parties can avail the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (relating to registration of political parties).

— Unrecognised parties can be newly registered parties or those which have not secured enough percentage of votes in the Assembly or general elections to fulfill the prescribed criteria to become a state party.

They are not entitled to an exclusive allotment of a reserved election symbol. They have to choose from a list of ‘free symbols’ issued by the Commission. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— They are not eligible either to get free copies of electoral rolls, free authorisation for broadcast / telecast facilities over All India Radio / Doordarshan during Assembly and general elections, and are not eligible for subsidised land for party offices. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 123)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 124)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 124)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 124)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 123)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 124)

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