UPSC Essentials | Daily subject-wise quiz: Polity and Governance MCQs on Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025, Ordinances and more (Week 102)

QUESTION 1

With reference to the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. It is aimed at strengthening India’s borders and streamlining the law governing immigration and foreigners.

2. The Bill repeals and replaces the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000.

3. The bill empowers the various State governments to pass orders or directions regarding foreigners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Explanation

— The Union government introduced in the Lok Sabha The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025, which it said is aimed at strengthening India’s borders and streamlining the law governing immigration and foreigners. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Bill repeals and replaces the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000, and three pre-independence laws, the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, and the Foreigners Act, 1936. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Statement of Objects and Reasons submitted alongside the Bill mention that the Acts “are not only of pre-Constitution period, but also, they were brought into extraordinary times of first and second world wars”. It also notes that there are overlapping provisions and that there is a necessity to enact a comprehensive legislation.

— The Bill would establish an overarching Bureau of Immigration (Section 5) with a Commissioner at its head, who will be assisted by Foreigners Regional Registration Officers, Foreigners Registration Officers, Chief Immigration Officers and other Immigration officers designated by the Centre. The Bureau will fall under the Centre and will be in charge of performing “immigration functions” such as regulating the entry and exit of foreigners along with any other functions that the Centre prescribes.

— It would also empower the Central government to pass orders or directions regarding foreigners (Section 7) including: Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Requirements for foreigners to enter and depart India “only at such times and by such route and at such port or place”, subject to any specified “conditions on arrival”;

— Order that a foreigner shall not remain in India or in any “specified area” within India;

— Order that a foreigner shall “remove himself to, and remain in” a specified area within India, or reside in a particular place;

— Requiring them to present herself for examination to furnish information “in such manner, at such time, as may be required”;

— Requiring them to furnish proof of identity;

— Requiring them to submit biometric information and handwriting/signature samples;

— Requiring them to submit to a medical examination;

— Prohibiting them from associating with “persons of a specified description”;

— Prohibiting them from engaging in “activities of a specified description”;

— Prohibiting them from “using or possessing specified articles”;

— If a foreigner is ordered to reside in a certain area, they will also be subject to any conditions imposed by the Centre regarding “maintenance, discipline and the punishment of offences and breaches of discipline” (Section 13).

— Foreigners who overstay their visa or violate any orders under Section 7 can be punished with up to three years imprisonment and a fine of up to Rs 3 lakh (Section 23).

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Ordinances, consider the following statements:

1. If at any time, when both Houses of Parliament are not in session, the President may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.

2. It shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

3. The ordinance shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six months from the reassembly of Parliament.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Article 123 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the authority to issue Ordinances during a Parliamentary break.

— If, at any time when both Houses of Parliament are not in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist that necessitate immediate action, he may publish such Ordinances as he deems necessary. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament; nevertheless, every such Ordinance Hence, statement 2 is correct.

(a) shall be brought before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to act after the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or, if before the expiration of that period resolutions rejecting it are approved by both Houses, upon the passage of the second of those resolutions; and Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

(b) the President may withdraw at any moment.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. He/she should be qualified for election as a member of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).

2. He/she is not eligible for re-election to the office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of MPs of both Houses of Parliament and MLAs of the states and Delhi and Puducherry. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Assemblies, and members of state Legislative Councils, are not part of the electoral college.

— No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he—

(a) is a citizen of India,

(b) has completed the age of thirty-five years, and

(c) is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall, subject to the other provisions of this Constitution, be eligible for re-election to that office. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Money Bill, consider the following statements:

1. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People it shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations and the Council of States.

2. The Council of States shall return it or without recommendations within fourteen days.

3. If the House of the People does not accept any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be re-introduced in the House of the People.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— According to Article 110 of the Constitution, a Bill can be designated as a money Bill if it exclusively deals with certain subjects. These include taxation, financial obligations of the Indian government, the consolidated fund (revenue received by the government through taxes and expenses incurred in the form of borrowings and loans) or contingency fund (money to meet unforeseen expenditure) of India, or “any matter incidental” to the subjects listed in the Article.

— After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, it is transmitted to the Council of States for recommendations, and the Council of States shall return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations within fourteen days of receiving the Bill, and the House of the People may then accept or reject all or any of the Council of States’ recommendations. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— If the House of the People approves any of the suggestions of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be considered to have been passed by both Houses with the revisions recommended by the Council of States and adopted by the House of the People.

— If the House of the People does not accept any of the Council of States’ recommendations, the Money Bill is regarded to have been enacted by both Houses in its original form, with no revisions requested by the Council of States. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations is not returned to the House of the People within the fourteen-day period, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the end of the period in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements:

1. A person can be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

2. A person accused of any offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— No person shall be convicted of any offence except for a breach of a law in force at the time of the commission of the Act charged as an offence, nor shall he be subjected to a penalty larger than that which might have been imposed under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.

— No one may be charged and punished for the same offence more than once. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— No individual accused of an offence shall be compelled to testify against himself. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Previous Daily Subject-Wise-Quiz

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 102)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 101)

Daily subject-wise quiz —  Science and Technology (Week 101)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 101)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 101)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 101)

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