UPSC Key: Moon Base programme, Surrogate ads, and Criminalisation of politics

Mains Examination: General Studies-II, III: Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India, Awareness in the fields of Space. 

What’s the ongoing story: The invitation to join NASA’s Moon Base programme can be an important turning point in the history of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), one that can potentially put it on an entirely different trajectory. 

Key Points to Ponder:

— Know about the Moon Base programme in detail.

— What are the areas of cooperation between India and the USA?

— What are Artemis Accords?

— What is the significance of international space cooperation for India’s space programme?

— What are the potential benefits of joining the Moon Base programme for India?

— What are the projects in which ISRO is collaborating with other space agencies?

— How can India balance international space cooperation with strategic autonomy in the space sector?

— What are the concerns associated with India joining the Moon base programme?

Key Takeaways:

— The invitation itself was not surprising, considering that India has already signed the Artemis Accords, and entered into a strategic partnership with the United States on human spaceflight missions. Yet, given the extremely volatile relationship between the two countries in the last couple of years, this initiative to forge a closer partnership on space is a refreshing move.

— In scale and ambition, the Moon Base programme can be compared only to the Apollo missions. In terms of its impact on humanity and the future of the planet, it could turn out to be far more consequential.

— The Moon Base programme is about creating a permanent research station on the Moon, one that can be inhabited by astronauts, and robots, for prolonged periods of time. The base, to be built in stages over several years, is meant to facilitate lunar research, and allow exploration and exploitation of lunar resources.

— It will possibly be the most challenging engineering exercise ever undertaken, requiring several trips to the Moon by crewed and robotic missions. It could also be the costliest scientific project ever.

— NASA is in no position, and does not want, to execute this entirely on its own. Its budget has been slashed significantly under the Donald Trump administration, while most of its hardware production is now happening in the private sector. So, it is seeking partners, both in the international community as well as in the private industry, to collaborate with.

— The countries that have signed on to the Artemis Accords have, in a way, already shown a willingness to join such a collaboration. There are 70 nations in that club now, including some major space-faring countries like Japan, India, South Korea, and Israel. Several European countries are also in the group.

— India has traditionally been extremely reluctant to join any such group. But with Artemis Accords, it has made its choice very clear. It was one of the early signatories to the Accords, joining as the 27th nation in 2023. There is no official confirmation as of now, but it is very likely that ISRO would accept the offer of collaborating on the Moon Base programme.

— It makes eminent sense for it to do so. ISRO has its own plans for human spaceflight missions, setting up a space station, and even landing humans on the Moon. Joining the Moon Base programme offers the opportunity for it to gain valuable experience in planning and executing complex missions like these, and leapfrog in technology development. 

— ISRO has demonstrated its capabilities in executing such missions on its own as well, but that would require time and huge amounts of money.

— Space exploration is reaching a stage where a 10-year gap in technology development can leave a nation fairly well behind. Besides, it would not make economic sense to reinvent the wheel. As it is, ISRO’s current plans to have an independent human spaceflight programme, a Moon landing programme, and also a full-fledged space station, are extremely ambitious. It is, no doubt, extremely important to have these capabilities. But it is difficult to imagine that India would have the scientific and economic rationale for running these sustainably on its own.

— The plan for setting up the Bharat Antariksh Station is a case in point. While ISRO must have the technology and capability to build such space infrastructure, it is extremely unlikely that India would have, in about a decade’s time, a scientific ecosystem hungry enough to need an entire space station for its own use all year round. It will have to be a shared infrastructure, just like the International Space Station is right now.

— The concerns about India joining what appears like a US-led bloc might be overstated. The Artemis Accords are not like a geopolitical or military camp. Space, as of now at least, is not adversarial. If the US lands on the Moon ahead of others, it does not get to control the area or the resources. It does not harm the interests of China or Russia, which are attempting to do the same thing through their own partnership.

Do You Know:

— The Artemis Accords, established by the US and seven partner countries in October 2020, are a set of 13 principles that seek to promote peaceful and cooperative exploration of space.

— The signatory countries agree to abide by these principles that are mostly a reiteration of established international law on space exploration, like a commitment not to use space for military purposes, a promise to cooperate on matters of safety of space assets and astronauts, and a willingness to share scientific data from space missions. India joined the Artemis Accords in 2023.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍The next step to the Moon and an invite for India 

UPSC Prelims Practice Question Covering similar theme:

(1) Consider the following statements:

1. The Moon Base programme envisages establishing a permanent research station on the Moon for prolonged human and robotic operations.

2. The Artemis Accords are a legally binding military alliance among countries for space exploration. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

Notices to actors: What law says on surrogate ads

Shah Rukh Khan, Ajay Devgn and Tiger Shroff have been sent a show-cause notice by FDA, Maharashtra (Screenshot: YouTube/VimalElaichi, Enhanced using AI)

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national importance.

Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. 

What’s the ongoing story: Maharashtra’s Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issued show-cause notices to Hindi cinema actors Shah Rukh Khan, Ajay Devgn, and Tiger Shroff last week, alleging that their advertisement for Vimal Elaichi amounts to surrogate advertising for Vimal Pan Masala. 

Key Points to Ponder:

— What is surrogate advertising? 

— What are consumers’ rights?

— How does surrogate advertising affect consumer rights? 

— What are the key provisions of the Food Safety and Standards (FSS) Act, 2006?

— What is the role of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 in regulating misleading and surrogate ads.

— What are the challenges faced by authorities in curbing surrogate ads?

— Know about the Central Consumer Protection Authority in detail.

Key Takeaways:

— Surrogate advertising is a form of marketing used to promote products banned or limited from advertising under government regulations — such as alcohol, tobacco, and pan masala — by promoting another product under the exact same brand name, logo, or visual style to ensure brand awareness in the minds of consumers.

— The notices ask the three actors to explain their role in the ad, which in the FDA’s assessment, creates an association with the Vimal Pan Masala brand — a product currently prohibited in the state — and could amount to its indirect promotion.

— The latest action reportedly marks the first instance of the regulator examining surrogate advertising even as it ramps up its crackdown on gutkha and pan masala containing tobacco or nicotine. 

— Maharashtra has prohibited gutkha and pan masala containing tobacco or nicotine since 2012 under Section 30(2)(a) of the Food Safety and Standards (FSS) Act, 2006. The prohibition is renewed annually, with the current renewal in force since July 13, 2026.

— The notices state: “Upon examination of the said advertisement, it prima facie appears that the advertisement promotes the Vimal brand, which is mainly associated with Pan Masala, a product prohibited for manufacture, storage, transportation, distribution and sale in the State of Maharashtra for a period of one year, with effect from the date specified in the Prohibition Order dated the 13th July, 2026, issued by the Commissioner of Food Safety, Maharashtra State, under Section 30(2)(a) of the FSS Act, 2006.”

— According to the FDA, the Vimal Elaichi ad’s presentation, dialogue, product name, and market context raise a “serious question” over whether it constitutes indirect or surrogate promotion of a prohibited tobacco-related product.

— The regulator said given all three actors appear as brand endorsers, their direct participation is liable to be examined under the following provisions of the FSS Act:

– Section 24, which restricts misleading and deceptive food advertisements, and

– Section 53, which provides for a penalty of up to Rs 10 lakh for anyone who is “party to the publication” of a misleading food advertisement.

— It also cited the Food Safety and Standards (Advertising and Claims) Regulations, 2018.

— The FDA has also cited Section 21 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which empowers the CCPA to direct discontinuation or modification of a false or misleading advertisement, and to impose upon the endorser of such an advertisement a penalty of up to Rs 10 lakh, and up to Rs 50 lakh for every subsequent contravention.

Do You Know:

— The CCPA, under the Department of Consumer Affairs, had notified the “Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsements for Misleading Advertisements” in 2022 to curb misleading advertisements and protect consumers. 

— The CCPA was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, for regulating matters relating to violation of the rights of the consumers, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements which are prejudicial to the interests of public and consumers and to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class.

— Under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, misleading advertisement is defined as “in relation to any product or service… an advertisement, which —

(i) falsely describes such product or service; or

(ii) gives a false guarantee to, or is likely to mislead the consumers as to the nature, substance, quantity or quality of such product or service; or

(iii) conveys an express or implied representation which, if made by the manufacturer or seller or service provider thereof, would constitute an unfair trade practice; or

(iv) deliberately conceals important information.”

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍Vimal Elaichi ad: What Tukaram Mundhe’s FDA wants SRK, Ajay Devgn and Tiger Shroff to explain

Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme:

(2) With reference to ‘consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ? (UPSC CSE 2012)

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

3. In case of death of consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/ her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

The Centre-states tussle over the mines and minerals bill

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national importance and Polity. 

Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. 

What’s the ongoing story: The passage of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, in both Houses of Parliament has reignited a long-running tussle between the Centre and states over the taxation of mineral resources and the revenues they generate. 

Key Points to Ponder:

— What are the key provisions of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026. 

— What are the potential implications of Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, on Centre-State fiscal relations?

— What are the issues related with the taxation of mineral resources in India?

— What are the challenges faced by mineral-rich States in reducing their dependence on mineral revenues?

— What reforms have been taken to transform India’s mining sector?

Key Takeaways:

— The amendments seek to restrict states from imposing specified levies on mineral rights and mineral-bearing land, even as several mineral-rich states have begun exploring such levies following the Supreme Court’s landmark 2024 ruling upholding their power to tax mineral rights.

— The move has drawn sharp opposition from states. Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren has threatened protests against the amendments, saying they could significantly dent the state’s prospective revenue, while Kerala Chief Minister V D Satheesan has raised concerns over their implications for India’s federal structure.

— Among the states, Tamil Nadu and Jharkhand are the ones who have already imposed such levies, while Karnataka has proposed a similar measure. 

— The Bill will also extinguish unpaid or unrecovered dues arising from such levies imposed before it comes into force, with some estimates putting the value of such outstanding dues across the mining sector at around Rs 2 lakh crore. The Centre, however, maintained that unchecked state-level levies could raise the cost of key minerals, feeding into inflation and infrastructure costs.

— According to Mines Ministry officials, the amendments seek to address what the Centre considers excessive cess and other levies imposed by some states following the Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment.

— In its July 25, 2024 ruling, the Supreme Court upheld the power of states to levy taxes on mineral rights and mineral-bearing land. It also waived interest and penalties on tax demands for the period before July 25, 2024, and allowed the payment of such dues to be staggered over 12 years from April 1, 2026.

— The judgment overruled the 1989 ruling in India Cement Ltd v. State of Tamil Nadu, which had held that royalty was a tax and that states lacked the legislative competence to tax mineral rights, as the subject fell under the Union List. The 2024 ruling opened the door for states to raise additional revenue from mining.

— The dependence on mineral revenues is particularly significant for mineral-rich states. According to a Comptroller and Auditor General of India report on state finances, states’ own non-tax revenue stood at Rs 3.3 lakh crore in 2024-25, of which 41% — or Rs 1.36 lakh crore — came from receipts related to mineral and petroleum.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍Parliament passes Mines and Minerals Amendment Bill

Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme:

Despite India being one of the countries of Gondwanaland, its mining industry contributes much less to its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in percentage. Discuss. (UPSC CSE 2021)

NATION

Over 4,000 cases pending against MPs, MLAs: Amicus curiae to Supreme Court

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

Mains Examination: General Studies II: Parliament and State Legislatures— Structure, Functioning, Conduct of Business, Powers & Privileges and Issues Arising out of these.

What’s the ongoing story: A total of 4,192 cases against sitting and former MPs and MLAs are pending trial across the country with 519 cases pending for more than a decade, according to a report submitted before the Supreme Court by Senior Advocate Vijay Hansaria, appointed amicus curiae in a PIL seeking expeditious disposal of criminal cases against MPs and MLAs.

Key Points to Ponder:

— What is meant by the criminalisation of politics? 

— Examine the factors responsible for the increasing entry and persistence of candidates with criminal backgrounds in electoral politics.

— How is black money in elections linked to criminalisation of politics? 

— Why is criminalisation of politics considered a challenge to democratic governance?

— Should a person facing serious criminal charges be barred from contesting elections, or would this violate the principle of presumption of innocence? Discuss the competing constitutional concerns.

— What are the existing provisions under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 regarding disqualification of persons convicted of criminal offences?

— What role do political parties play in the criminalisation of politics?

—  What are the limitations of existing laws in curbing the criminalisation of politics? Suggest reforms to make the electoral process more transparent and accountable.

—Discuss strategies to improve voter literacy on electoral ethics and political accountability.

— What are the challenges in ensuring effective functioning of designated/special courts for cases involving MPs and MLAs. Discuss solutions. 

Key Takeaways: 

— Another 700 cases are pending investigation while 360 have remained at that stage for more than three years without a chargesheet being filed.

— The figures form part of Hansaria’s 22nd Amicus report. It notes that the 4,192 figure is based on information received from High Courts and their websites; the Allahabad High Court did not submit a report and its figure of 1,171 cases is from its website as of February 2024. The High Court websites, in total, show 4,442 pending cases.

Of the 4,192 cases, 754 have been pending for 5 to 10 years, 562 for 3 to 5 years, and 1,095 for less than 3 years, it states.

— The report states that Chief Ministers of 14 of 28 states have criminal cases against them pending trials. Telangana CM A Revanth Reddy faces the highest number of cases at 89, followed by West Bengal CM Suvendu Adhikari (29), Karnataka CM D K Shivakumar, Andhra Pradesh CM N Chandrababu Naidu (both 19) and Kerala CM V D Satheesan (18).

— In 2017, the Supreme Court ordered the setting up of 12 special courts in 10 states, UTs for speedy trials in criminal cases involving legislators. In December 2018, it directed that one designated Sessions Court and one designated Magisterial Court be identified in every district to try cases on priority.

— In November 2023, the SC directed the Chief Justices of all HCs to register suo motu cases to monitor the early disposal of such cases and empowered special benches to issue directions for expeditious trials.

— The matter was referred to a three-judge Bench in February 2025 after the previous amicus report highlighted the absence of effective monitoring by most HCs. It has been listed for hearing before the three-judge Bench on August 18.

— The amicus recommended that designated courts exclusively conduct trials involving lawmakers until their backlog is cleared; that cases pending for more than 3 years be heard day-to-day; and that courts issue NBWs where an accused lawmaker fails to appear on two consecutive dates. The report also proposes a nodal prosecution officer for securing witnesses and requiring real-time uploading of case data and order sheets on HC websites.

— He has also sought that trials be completed within one year of framing of charges, monthly monitoring by HCs of cases pending for more than 3 years and “micro-monitoring” of individual delayed cases.

From Nation page: Black money compromises democracy, SC orders speedy probes, trials

— Observing that black money in the electoral process compromises democracy, rule of law and the process itself, the Supreme Court on Monday strongly batted for timely probes and conclusion of criminal cases relating to recovery of ill-gotten money during the elections in the country. 

— Issuing a slew of directions, a bench of Justices Sanjay Karol and N K Singh said “any external factors that may influence this exercise of choice have the ability to compromise the very essence of democracy”.

Do You Know:

— The increasing trend of criminalisation of politics is linked to political control of state machinery, corruption, vote-bank politics and above all, loopholes in the legal system. Good governance gets seriously undermined when, for instance, criminals, gangsters or mafia dons, become the political bosses of bureaucrats and subvert the system to serve their interests.

— In such a scenario, the bureaucratic system ceases to resist corruption and often embraces it to carry out the diktats of criminal political bosses and also to suit its own ends.

— This is a pervasive malaise in our body politic, which is assuming cancerous proportions. As a result, the three main pillars of our democracy, namely, Parliament, judiciary and executive, get progressively weakened, and the fundamental concept of a democratic system gets subverted.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍The Panama Papers: Investigation that got a third of total tax demand raised under Black Money Act

📍Pratap Bhanu Mehta writes: When corruption does not make a political noise

📍Democracy interrupted: The rising number of criminals in politics

Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme:

(3) Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.

2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IDEAS PAGE

The rupee’s borrowed breathing space

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance.

Mains Examination: General Studies II: Indian Economy and issues relating to Planning, Mobilization of Resources, Growth, Development and Employment.

What’s the ongoing story: A country can defend its currency in two ways. It can earn more dollars or it can borrow them. The two look alike when the money arrives, but they are not the same. India’s latest external-sector stabilisation largely falls into the second kind.

Key Points to Ponder: 

— Ponder upon RBI’s role in managing rupee. 

— What are the different ways through which a country can support its currency?

— What are FCNR(B) deposits? How do they help banks mobilise foreign currency? 

— In which currency are FCNR(B) deposits maintained? 

— How are they different from ordinary NRE/NRO deposits?

— How does a foreign-currency swap between banks and the RBI work? 

— How can subsidising the hedging cost encourage banks to mobilise overseas foreign-currency deposits?

— Examine the major factors behind rupee depreciation. 

— Discuss the impact of rupee depreciation on inflation, growth and the current account.

— How can excessive dependence on volatile capital flows increase India’s vulnerability to global financial shocks and sudden reversals of capital?

— How should the RBI balance exchange-rate stability, inflation management, liquidity conditions and foreign-exchange reserve management without compromising its monetary-policy objectives?

— Understand differences between FDI and FPI. Which one is more liquid? 

Key Takeaways:

— Between June 8 and August 13, banks mobilised $52.3 billion in foreign-currency inflows under the RBI’s special swap facility, with FCNR(B) deposits accounting for the bulk of the funds raised.

— The RBI has closed the FCNR(B) swap window a month earlier than originally scheduled. At a time when the rupee was under pressure, this has been read as a vote of confidence. However, the question is why the money needed such inducement or recorded such a sharp fall as soon as it was withdrawn.

— Because confidence had left. The rupee was Asia’s worst-performing currency in 2025-26. Foreign portfolio investors had pulled out billions. They turned net buyers in July, bringing in about $2.1 billion. However, that is still a modest reversal relative to the scale of the preceding exodus. It is too early to read this as investors are rediscovering India.

— The question is why this works when reassurance does not. Because currency markets move not only on fundamentals but on expectations. Once investors believe depreciation is one-way, good data stops persuading them. The way to break that loop is to make the bet against the rupee expensive. That is what the FCNR(B) window does.

— The pace of mobilisation measures the incentive more than belief in Indian assets. Flows surged only after the subsidy appeared. Confidence that materialises only after the price is raised is not confidence. It is a purchase.

Do You Know:

Infographics by NotebookLM

— FCNR(B) deposits let non-resident Indians hold foreign currency with Indian banks, free of rupee risk, with tax-free interest and full repatriation. 

— Banks raise fresh three-to-five-year deposits, swap the dollars with the RBI, and the central bank absorbs the hedging cost. Once that cost is lifted, banks can offer dollar rates near 6-7.5 per cent, and some add leverage of 9-19 times. 

— For a wealthy depositor borrowing abroad and placing the proceeds here at a protected high yield, this is a carry trade with the currency risk removed by someone else.

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍Foreign capital flows trickle back in, but fresh headwinds are buffeting the economy

📍Knowledge Nugget: What are FCNR (B) deposits and swap scheme? 

Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme:

(4) Consider the following: (UPSC CSE, 2021)

1) Foreign currency convertible bonds.

2) Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions

3) Global depository receipts

4) Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 4

d) 1 and 4

ECONOMY

Why India is struggling to acquire critical mineral assets abroad, expand footprint

Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance.

Mains Examination: General Studies II: Various Security Forces and Agencies and their Mandate.

What’s the ongoing story: India’s efforts to secure critical mineral assets overseas are facing a series of hurdles, ranging from high asset valuations, volatile mineral prices, financial constraints, to socio-political risks in resource-rich countries.

Key Points to Ponder:

— What are critical minerals? What makes a mineral “critical” for an economy? 

— Examine the two core criteria — economic importance and supply risk — and why criticality can change with technology, geopolitics and supply chains.

— Which are the major critical minerals identified by India, and where are they used?

— How does the MMDR Act, 1957, deal with critical and strategic minerals? What changed after the 2023 amendment?

— How does concentration of global mining, processing and refining capacity in a few countries create supply-chain vulnerabilities for India?

— Why is India seeking mineral assets abroad through entities such as Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL)? 

— What is Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL) and what role does it play in securing India’s overseas mineral supplies?

— What are the advantages of acquiring equity in overseas mines compared with relying entirely on spot-market imports?

— Understand the concept of ‘resource nationalism’.

— What is the rationale behind the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM)?

Key Takeaways:

— Incorporated in 2019, the government’s flagship overseas acquisition vehicle, Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL) — a joint venture of National Aluminium Company Ltd., Hindustan Copper Limited, and Mineral Exploration & Consultancy Limited — is mandated to identify, explore and acquire overseas critical mineral assets to help meet India’s growing demand for these strategic resources.

— However, barring some progress in Argentina, KABIL has struggled to expand its overseas footprint in other mineral-rich countries, including Australia, Vietnam, Mali, and Chile, as proposed investments in critical mineral extraction projects have either stalled or fallen through.

— In Argentina, KABIL has so far acquired five lithium brine blocks in Catamarca province. It is also evaluating seven additional greenfield lithium blocks in Catamarca and is in discussions for two more lithium projects in Jujuy province. 

— In December 2024, a consortium comprising KABIL, Coal India Ltd (CIL), Oil India Ltd (OIL), and ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL) submitted a non-binding offer (NBO) of $184 million to acquire 10% equity stake each in the Mt Marion and Wodgina lithium mines in Australia. The proposed transaction involved acquiring a 20% stake in the holding company, Mineral Resources Ltd, which owned 50% stakes in both mines.

— After the process was reopened, the consortium submitted a revised NBO of $233 million in September 2025, seeking to acquire a 20% stake in each of the two mines. This would have entailed acquiring a 40% stake in Mineral Resources Ltd. 

— But the assets were ultimately acquired by South Korean steel and chemical major POSCO, which paid $765 million for 15% stake each in the Wodgina and Mt Marion mines, equivalent to a 30% stake in Mineral Resources Ltd.

Do You Know:

— As India has little processing capacity and is 100% import-dependent for some key critical minerals such as cobalt, lithium, nickel, rare earth elements (REEs) and silicon, it has been aggressively expanding collaborative efforts. China controls 90% of global critical mineral processing.

— On 20 February 2026, India became a signatory to the U.S. – led Pax Silica initiative. India and the United States are also partnering under the Forum on Resource Geostrategic Engagement (FORGE) initiative. 

Other Important Articles Covering the same topic:

📍India and US broaden cooperation on critical minerals supply chain. Will it catalyse investments?

📍Critical minerals are a strategic asset – India must not fall behind

Previous year UPSC Prelims Questions Covering similar theme:

(5) Consider the following statements:

1. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

2. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

3. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(6) With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ALSO IN NEWS

Are courts precluded from granting fair compensation for nuclear mishaps: Supreme Court

— The Supreme Court on Monday asked the Centre to respond whether the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025, which replaced the Civil Liability for Nuclear Liability Act of 2010, would preclude constitutional courts from determining a “fair and just” monetary compensation in case of a nuclear mishap.

— A three-judge bench presided over by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant also sought to know whether there is any conflict of interest in the power under Section 17(4) of the Act to appoint Chairperson and Members of the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB). 

— The bench, also comprising Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana, issued notice to the Centre and AERB on these two issues. The court was hearing a plea which said that the government’s move to cap the liability of private nuclear operators under the Act in case of a nuclear disaster will encourage the operators to cut corners.

After January launch vehicle debacle,GISAT-1A take-off in September to end ISRO’s seven-month operational hiatus

— After a seven-month hiatus, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is set to resume its launch services, with the earth observation satellite GISAT-1A set to be launched in the first week of September.

— This is one of two satellites — the other being NVS-03 — that has remained parked at Sriharikota spaceport for months as launches were put on hold following a series of setbacks, said officials in the know.

— GISAT-1A or Geo Imaging Satellite — also referred to as EOS-05 under the new nomenclature — is a replacement satellite for the 2021-launched GISAT-1 (or EOS-03), which missed the orbit after the final propulsive segment of the rocket failed to ignite.

States can’t block elephant corridors fearing crop damage: SC

— Stating that states cannot block the elephant corridors fearing crop damage, the Supreme Court Monday asked the Centre to conduct a fresh survey of these corridors across the country.

— A three-judge bench, presided by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, said, “We are very clear that there cannot be obstacles in the way of wildlife. Elephant herds have a practice of travelling long distances. No State can say that just because crops are getting destroyed, there have to be obstacles in their path”.

— The top court also asked the Centre to submit a comprehensive survey report detailing the necessary steps and initiatives taken by them to prevent such obstructions. 

Navy to lease two new MQ-9B Sea Guardian unmanned aircraft from US firm

— The Ministry of Defence on Monday inked a Rs 1,943-crore contract with American defence major General Atomics Aeronautical to lease two MQ-9B Sea Guardian High-Altitude Long-Endurance (HALE) Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems (RPAS) for the Indian Navy for 30 months.

— In a statement, the Defence ministry said the contract was signed in the presence of A Anbarasu, Additional Secretary and Director General (Acquisition), Department of Defence. 

— It said the MQ-9B Sea Guardian HALE RPAS, equipped with advanced systems, state-of-the-art sensors and sophisticated payloads, will significantly enhance the Indian Navy’s Maritime Domain Awareness capabilities.

PRELIMS ANSWER KEY

1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(a)

For any queries and feedback, contact raveena.baneta@indianexpress.com

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