UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (September 20 – September 26): 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2027

QUESTION 1

With reference to air-to-air refuelling, consider the following statements:

1. Air-to-air refuelling allows a military aircraft to receive fuel from a tanker aircraft while both are in flight.

2. The Indian Air Force operates Ilyushin Il-78MKI tankers procured from Uzbekistan to refuel heavy multi-role jets like the Su-30MKI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Science, Technology and Defence, particularly military aviation and aerial refuelling technology. The topic is important for Prelims as defence exercises, military platforms and indigenous efforts to enhance India’s air power and operational range frequently feature in current affairs.

Explanation

— The United Kingdom announced that it would extend limited military support to Saudi Arabia against the Houthi rebels in Yemen. In a statement, the UK said it has agreed to provide an RAF Voyager air-to-air refuelling aircraft to support Saudi defensive efforts in the region.

— Tensions between the Iran-backed Houthis and the Saudi-backed Yemeni government flared up again this month, after the rebels captured the strategic Mokha port in the Red Sea. In the following weeks, the Houthis have targeted Saudi-linked vessels, and launched missile and drone strikes at Saudi Arabia.

What is aerial refuelling?

— Fighter aircraft remain airborne for long hours during combat patrols and strategic missions to be able to respond instantly to threat without incurring the delays of a ground launch. Air-to-air refuelling helps ensure they stay in the skies longer.

— Air-to-air refuelling allows a military aircraft to receive fuel from a tanker aircraft while both are in flight. This lets fighter aircraft remain airborne longer without needing to return to an airbase to refuel, and extends both their range and the amount of time they can spend carrying out a mission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Indian Air Force operates a fleet of six Ilyushin Il-78MKI tankers procured from Uzbekistan in 2003-04 to refuel heavy multi-role jets like the Su-30MKI. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Recently, fresh underwater excavations off Poompuhar have yielded new evidence of the settlement’s maritime connections. Poompuhar is:

(a) An ancient Chola port city in Tamil Nadu

(b) An ancient trading centre located on the Malabar Coast

(c) An ancient inland urban centre associated with the Kaveri river valley

(d) An ancient Buddhist settlement located on the Coromandel Coast

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Indian History and Art and Culture. Recent underwater archaeological excavations add a current-affairs dimension to the static topic of ancient ports, archaeology, and India’s maritime heritage.

Explanation

— Fresh underwater excavations off Poompuhar, the ancient Chola port city in Tamil Nadu, have yielded new evidence of the settlement’s maritime connections. The 18-day exploration, conducted by the Tamil Nadu State Department of Archaeology (TNSDA) in collaboration with the Indian Maritime University, recovered a fragment of a West Asian “torpedo jar”, four terracotta ring wells, and more than 250 ceramic fragments, among other finds.

— Poompuhar, located in present-day Mayiladuthurai district, features prominently in Sangam and post-Sangam literature. Archaeological investigations over the decades have uncovered evidence of its links with wider Indian Ocean trade, while much of the ancient settlement is believed to now lie beneath the sea.

— Located at the mouth of the 800-km-long Cauvery river, where it empties into the Bay of Bengal, Poompuhar — also known as Kaveripoompattinam — is believed to have been the capital of the early Cholas. In a 2011 archaeology report, R. Poonkundran, K. Sridharan and others write: “This city seems to have been in existence from 5th-4th century BCE as the carbon date of a log of wood recovered from Poompuhar clearly shows.”

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike traditional software, AI agents can take a series of actions towards a goal with limited human intervention, including accessing email, browsing the web, writing code or interacting with other software.

2. AI agents can perceive information from their environment, reason about the available information and dynamically decide the next actions needed to achieve a specified goal.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

AI agents are an emerging Science and Technology topic with applications across software, automation and digital services. The question tests the conceptual distinction between AI agents and conventional software, particularly their ability to perceive, reason, plan and act autonomously.

Explanation

— Two months ago, the world learned that a few “rogue” OpenAI agents had escaped a secure testing environment and hacked Hugging Face, an open-source repository that hosts tools for machine learning and artificial intelligence (AI) development. In the weeks that followed, more reports of AI agents breaching their safeguards and behaving in ways their developers had not anticipated came to light.

— Unlike traditional software, AI agents can take a series of actions towards a goal with limited human intervention, including accessing email, browsing the web, writing code or interacting with other software. That greater autonomy means errors or attempts to work around restrictions can have consequences beyond a single conversation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— A defining feature of AI agents is their ability to perceive information, reason about it, decide on the next action and act iteratively toward a goal. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Recently, the Ministry of Mines has notified two more offshore mineral blocks – West Sewell Ridge-01 and Sewell Rise-01 for grant of composite licences for polymetallic nodules and crusts. These mineral blocks are located in:

(a) The Arabian Sea, off the coast of Gujarat

(b) The Lakshadweep Sea, off the coast of Lakshadweep

(c) Great Nicobar Island in the Andaman Sea

(d) The Bay of Bengal, off the coast of Odisha

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Geography and Environment, particularly India’s offshore mineral resources and marine mineral exploration. It tests knowledge of the location of polymetallic nodule and crust deposits, along with India’s efforts to explore and utilise deep-sea mineral resources.

Explanation

— The Ministry of Mines has notified two more offshore mineral blocks near Great Nicobar Island in the Andaman Sea, covering a combined area of 1,632 square kilometres, for grant of composite licences for polymetallic nodules and crusts.

— The two blocks are West Sewell Ridge-01, off Great Nicobar Island, covering 1,000 square kilometres, and Sewell Rise-01, in the southern part of Sewell Rise near Great Nicobar Island, covering 632 square kilometres.

— Polymetallic nodules and crusts are seabed mineral deposits containing metals such as nickel, cobalt, manganese, copper and rare earth elements.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Election Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission derives its powers from Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

2. The Election Commission has the responsibility to conduct elections only for Parliament and the Legislature of every State.

3. The Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and “such number of other Election Commissioners” as the Parliament may appoint, subject to provisions of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Indian Polity, particularly the constitutional position, powers and functions of the Election Commission of India. It tests understanding of the ECI’s constitutional mandate, electoral responsibilities and composition, including the distinction between elections conducted by the ECI and other elections.

Explanation

— The functioning of the three-member Election Commission of India is under scrutiny this week, after an investigation by The Indian Express published on September 23 revealed that two Election Commissioners had placed their objections on record at least 14 times in 10 months. The Election Commission has responded by saying that the decisions taken by the Commission have been unanimous, saying that “observations” were a part of the deliberative process.

— The Election Commission derives its powers from Article 324 of the Constitution, which provides for a Commission for the “superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President…” Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— It further says that the commission will consist of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and “such number of other Election Commissioners” that the President may appoint, subject to provisions of law. The CEC “shall act as the Chairman of the Election Commission”. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Tulu language, consider the following statements:

1. It is classified as one of the languages among the Dravidian languages.

2. It is spoken mainly in the coastal districts of Tamil Nadu.

3. Bhuta Kola is a sacred ritualistic spirit-worship and folk dance tradition practised primarily by the Tulu-speaking communities.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Indian History and Culture, particularly regional languages, linguistic diversity and folk traditions of India. Such questions are important for Prelims because they combine static cultural knowledge with current affairs involving language recognition, regional identity and cultural heritage.

Explanation

— During the first Cabinet meeting at Mangaluru, the D K Shivakumar-led Congress government decided to accord Tulu the second additional administrative language status.

— Tulu is classified among the five Dravidian languages, the others being Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam. It is spoken mainly in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi in Karnataka, and parts of northern Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The language has a strong oral tradition, rich folklore, and cultural practices like Yakshagana, Bhoota Kola, and others. Although historically it had its own script, today it is largely written using the Kannada script. There are different estimates about the number of speakers owing to the migration of the Tulu-speaking population to metros like Mumbai and Bengaluru. Around 1.8-2 million people are native speakers of the language. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following films became the first-ever Indian film to win the prestigious Platform Prize at the Toronto International Film Festival (TIFF)?

(a) Village Rockstars (Assamese film)

(b) Killa (Marathi film)

(c) Masaan (Hindi film)

(d) Angh (Naga film)

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Art & Culture, particularly Indian cinema, regional filmmaking and international recognition of Indian cultural works. Such questions can help test awareness of important international film festivals, awards and their significance for India’s cultural diplomacy and soft power.

Explanation

— Naga film, Angh, directed by Theja Rio, became the first-ever Indian film to win the prestigious Platform Prize at the Toronto International Film Festival (TIFF).

— The Platform Prize is given to the best film in TIFF’s competitive Platform programme, which champions bold directorial visions.

— Angh was honoured for its “refreshing perspective, strength of filmmaking, and deeply resonant portrait of a world”. A jury comprising Argentinian director Pablo Trapero, British screenwriter Amma Asante, Taiwanese artist Sylvia Chang, Canadian film producer Luc Dery and Albert Lee, the Executive Director of the Hong Kong International Film Festival Society, awarded Angh the $20,000 CAD prize.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958, consider the following statements:

1. The Armed Forces Special Powers Ordinance, 1942, which preceded the present AFSPA framework, was promulgated by the British during the Quit India Movement.

2. Recently, the government has completely removed AFSPA from Nagaland, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh.

3. In 1997, Assam became the first state where the AFSPA was repealed.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Indian Polity and Governance, particularly AFSPA, its constitutional and legal framework, and its application in the Northeast. The topic is important for Prelims because changes in the areas declared as “disturbed areas” under AFSPA frequently feature in current affairs and require precise knowledge of the law.

Explanation

— The Centre has extended the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958, in specified areas of Nagaland, Manipur and Arunachal for another six months, according to Gazette notifications issued on Friday. This follows a review of the law and order situation there. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— In Manipur, the MHA has extended the disturbed area declaration across the state, excluding areas under the jurisdiction of 13 police stations in five districts.

— In Nagaland, the AFSPA has been extended in nine districts: Dimapur, Niuland, Chumoukedima, Mon, Kiphire, Noklak, Phek, Peren and Meluri.

— The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India movement in 1942. After Independence, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru decided to retain the Act, which was first brought in as an ordinance and then notified as an Act in 1958. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— AFSPA has been imposed on the Northeast states, Jammu & Kashmir, and Punjab during the militancy years. In 1997, Punjab was the first state in which it was repealed. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Consider the following statements:

1. Article 22(1) requires the police to inform an arrested person of the grounds of arrest.

2. The question of whether an accused must be given a written copy of the grounds of arrest came up before the SC in Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India (2023).

3. Article 23 provides that an arrested person must be brought before a magistrate within 24 hours.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to Indian Polity, particularly Fundamental Rights and safeguards available to arrested persons. The topic is important for Prelims because recent judicial developments have clarified the procedural safeguards surrounding arrest and personal liberty, making precise knowledge of constitutional provisions essential.

Explanation

— The Supreme Court has strengthened the Constitutional safeguards governing arrest, holding that an accused released for violation of the fundamental right to be informed of the grounds of arrest is not released on bail, but from an “illegal and unconstitutional detention”.

— Article 22(1) requires police to inform an arrested person of the grounds of arrest, and Article 22(2) requires production before a magistrate within 24 hours. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— The question of whether an accused must be given a written copy of the grounds of arrest came up before the SC in Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India (2023). The case turned on Section 19 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, which says that a person must be informed “of the grounds of such arrest”, but does not spell out how that information is to be conveyed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Supreme Court’s evolving jurisprudence.

— The Court noted that Article 22(1) of the Constitution guarantees an arrested person the right to know why they are being arrested. It said that this safeguard would mean little if the grounds were merely read out and not handed over in writing. The Court ruled that a written copy of the grounds of arrest must be furnished to the accused “as a matter of course and without exception”.

— That position was watered down in Ram Kishor Arora v. Directorate of Enforcement (2023); the Court held that the Pankaj Bansal ruling would apply prospectively. Since the arrest predated that judgement, the Court found that informing the accused of the grounds of arrest and allowing him to read them was sufficient compliance with Section 19 of the PMLA, even though no copy was furnished to him. Thus, the SC upheld that arrest.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Veer Guardian, consider the following statements:

1. It is a bilateral air exercise between India and Russia.

2. Veer Guardian 2026 is the sixth edition of the bilateral air exercise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The question is relevant to International Relations and Defence. It tests factual awareness of bilateral military exercises, their participating countries and editions—an area where UPSC often uses closely related names and details to test precision.

Explanation

— The Indian Air Force (IAF) and Japanese Air Self-Defence Forces (JASDF) conducted the bilateral air exercise, Veer Guardian, at the Air Force Station in Jodhpur earlier this month. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Held between September 9 and 22, the second edition of Veer Guardian notably saw the participation of JASDF’s Mitsubishi F-2A fighter aircraft — the first time Japanese fighter aircraft were deployed to India for such an exercise.

— While India-Japan Joint Military Exercises (JME) are not limited to the aerial domain, the two editions of Veer Guardian point to a growing focus on interoperability between their air forces.

— The two-week exercise was designed to let the two air forces train together in a range of scenarios. This includes joint mission planning, operational sorties and air combat manoeuvring (ACM).

— Veer Guardian also provides an opportunity for the two air forces to exchange best practices and build familiarity among personnel. Such interactions can help develop common operating practices and improve coordination over successive editions.

— Veer Guardian 2026 was the second edition of bilateral air exercise. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (September 13 – September 19)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (September 06 – September 12)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 30 – September 05)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 23 – August 29)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 16 – August 22)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 09 – August 15)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 02 – August 08)

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