UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 17 – May 23) : 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2026

3. The scheme proposes a higher share of states in the funding of the rural job programme.

4. The horizontal devolution will be applicable for the Union Territories.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2026 because flagship rural employment and livelihood programmes are frequently asked in governance and economy sections. UPSC can frame conceptual questions on scheme features, funding mechanisms, and terms such as horizontal devolution in the context of Finance Commission and cooperative federalism.

Explanation

— The Centre is set to adopt the same “objective parameters” for normative allocation of funds under the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB–G RAM G) scheme, which were recommended by the Sixteenth Finance Commission for used for horizontal devolution among States. The VB-G RAM G scheme will be rolled out from July 1 this year, bringing down the curtain on the two-decade-old Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS). Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Departing from MGNREGA, the VB–G RAM G Act proposes a higher share of states in the funding of the rural job programme. As per the Section 22(1) of the VB-G Ram-G Act, the fund-sharing pattern between the Centre and states shall be 90:10 for the 11 states, while it will be 60:40 for all other states. Under the MGNREGA, the Centre paid the entire wage bill and shared 75% of material and administrative cost of the scheme. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— In respect of Union Territories for which horizontal devolution is not applicable, the central government shall determine the normative allocation on the basis of the performance criteria specified in sub-rule (3) of rule 4 and such other criteria as may be considered appropriate by the central government, states the draft rules. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The formula for horizontal devolution recommended by the 16th Finance Commission is based on 6 parametres — population (2011 Census), with a weight of 17.5%, demographic performance (10% weight), area (10%), forest (10%) per capita Gross State Domestic Product Distance (42.5%) and contribution to GDP (10%).

— The VB G RAM G is aimed at providing a statutory guarantee of 125 days of wage employment in every financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to undertake unskilled manual work.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM), consider the following statements:

1. The V1 variant of ULPGM was a basic free-fall precision missile, while the V2 variant introduced propulsion.

2. The V3 variant can be deployed in both plains and high-altitude regions and is capable of operating during both day and night.

3. The ULPGM has been developed by the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2026 because defence technology and indigenous weapons systems are consistently important areas in science and technology and security-related current affairs. The UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM) reflects India’s growing focus on drone warfare, precision-strike capability, and indigenous defence innovation under initiatives like Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Explanation

— The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully carried out final development trials of the UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3, paving the way for its critical user trials by the armed forces.

— The DRDO completed the final deliverable configuration development trials of the ULPGM-V3 in both air-to-ground and air-to-air modes at DRDO’s National Open Area Range test range in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh. The trials were carried out using an integrated ground control system (GCS) to command and control the ULPGM weapon system.

— The GCS features state-of-the-art technologies to automate readiness and launch operations. While the final development trials will be followed by user trials by the armed forces, the term “deliverable configuration” suggests that not much will change in the subsequent trials.

— The V1 was a basic free-fall precision missile and the V2 introduced propulsion, longer range, and mid-course target updates. The V3 adds the ability to engage both ground and aerial targets, including drones and helicopters. It also features more advanced target-seeking systems, improved day-and-night combat capability, and multiple warhead options for different battlefield roles, making it a far more versatile weapon for modern drone warfare. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The ULPGM-V3 is fitted with a high-definition dual-channel seeker, an advanced guidance system using multiple sensors to accurately track targets — allowing it to strike a wide range of threats. The missile can be deployed in both plains and high-altitude regions and is capable of operating during both day and night. It is also equipped with a two-way data link, enabling operators to change or update the target even after the missile has been launched. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the International Booker Prize, consider the following statements:

1. It is the world’s most influential award for fiction in English translation.

2. The amount of the prize is given to the translator only and is not shared with the author.

3. There are no authors recognised by the International Booker Prize who have gone on to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2026 because international literary awards and cultural achievements frequently appear in current affairs-based questions. UPSC can ask factual and conceptual questions on major international awards, prize categories, and notable laureates linked to recent news events.

Explanation

— One of the world’s most influential awards for fiction in English translation, the International Booker Prize, that marks a decade in its current form, has worked to reward the faith — and courage — of writers who write against the grain of the global literary market, of translators who carry their vision across the impossible distance of languages, and of readers who refuse to be circumscribed by familiarity and comfort. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Launched first in 2005 as the Man Booker International Prize, it was a biennial honour awarded to a writer for their entire body of work. Its early recipients, Ismail Kadare, Chinua Achebe, Alice Munro, Philip Roth and László Krasznahorkai, were already literary behemoths and the Prize only served to confirm their stature.

— The change made room for a long-overdue transformation: the £50,000 prize would be shared equally between author and translator. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— No measure of the Prize’s impact is more striking than the fact that four authors recognised by the International Booker Prize have gone on to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature: Kang, Tokarczuk. Annie Ernaux and Jon Fosse. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— In 2022, Geetanjali Shree and Daisy Rockwell won for Tomb of Sand. In 2025, Banu Mushtaq won for Heart Lamp, the translation was done by Deepa Bhasthi.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the dwarfing disease, consider the following statements:

1. The disease is limited to the rice crop.

2. The white-backed plant hopper is the insect vector responsible for transmitting the virus from infected plants to healthy crops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC can frame conceptual questions on crops, pathogens, vectors, and agricultural biosecurity, especially when such outbreaks are reported in the news.

Explanation

— As Punjab prepares for the paddy sowing season, agricultural scientists are again cautioning farmers about the recurring threat of rice dwarfing disease, linked to the Southern Rice Black-Streaked Dwarf Virus.

— First reported in Punjab in 2022, it affected thousands of hectares and resurfaced in several districts last year. Many farmers suffered massive crop losses, which also matters in terms of Punjab’s standing as one of India’s top rice-producing states.

— Experts say the white-backed plant hopper is the insect vector responsible for transmitting the virus from infected plants to healthy crops. The transmission happens in a persistent propagative manner, meaning that once the insect acquires the virus, it remains capable of spreading it throughout its life cycle. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Scientists say the insect survives not only in paddy fields but also on alternate grassy hosts and plants between cropping seasons, aiding the disease in reappearing. Continuous paddy cultivation over large areas and the presence of weeds near fields and water channels further increase the risk of disease spread. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the ‘Carbon markets’, consider the following statements:

1. The term originated from the 1997 Kyoto protocol.

2. Carbon markets assign a financial value to carbon emissions.

3. They have helped create financial incentives for industrial decarbonisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC may frame conceptual questions linking climate commitments with market-based mechanisms for industrial decarbonisation and sustainable growth. This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2026 because carbon markets are becoming central to global climate governance and India’s transition towards low-carbon development.

Explanation

— The European Commission could extend its carbon markets scheme to flights leaving the region, targeting the aviation sector’s significant greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. This would expand the European Union Emissions Trading System (EU ETS), which currently mandates carbon pricing for flights operating within its borders. The EU had initiated a compliance-based system in the absence of a global regulatory mechanism, but it may now be transitioning towards wider enforcement. It could have implications for the aviation sector at a time when fuel costs have risen due to the war in West Asia.

— Carbon markets assign a financial value to carbon emissions. Originating from the 1997 Kyoto protocol on reducing GHGs, they have helped create financial incentives for industrial decarbonisation. Largely of two categories, carbon markets are compliance-focused or voluntary markets.

— Carbon compliance markets usually operate on a cap-and-trade principle, meaning that a central regulatory authority establishes a ceiling on total allowable emissions. Entities that achieve emission sustainability goals can trade their surplus permits, while those exceeding their allocations must purchase more permits to comply. Essentially, it imposes a direct cost for carbon emissions.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following statements:

1. This country is located close to Turkey and Syria.

2. The country is an EU member despite being geographically in Asia.

3. Recently, India and this country agreed to elevate their bilateral ties to Strategic Partnership, unveiling a 5-year roadmap for defence cooperation (2026-2031).

The above-mentioned statements refer to:

(a) Georgia

(b) Azerbaijan

(c) Bulgaria

(d) Cyprus

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC may frame questions combining location-based knowledge, regional conflicts, EU membership, and recent bilateral agreements in current affairs.

Explanation

— India and Cyprus agreed to elevate their bilateral ties to Strategic Partnership, unveiled a 5-year roadmap for defence cooperation (2026-2031).

— The two sides signed six pacts, including an MoU on establishing a joint working group on counter-terrorism, in the field of diplomatic training, on innovation and technology, establishment of official coordination and cooperation on Search and Rescue (SAR), on higher education and research and cultural cooperation from 2026-2030.

— India and Cyprus also agreed to speed up negotiations on the mobility pact. “Indian professionals and students residing in Cyprus are further reinforcing the bonds between our peoples. To further consolidate these ties, we have reached a consensus to conclude, at the earliest, a comprehensive Migration and Mobility Partnership, alongside a Social Security Agreement,” said PM Modi.

— Cyprus is located close to Turkey and Syria. It’s a EU member despite being geographically in Asia. Its location makes it a crucial part of the IMEEC, an infrastructure project that India expects multiple benefits from. IMEC is supposed to boost trade and connectivity between India and Europe via the Middle East, and Cyprus, in the Mediterranean, has an important role to play.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Colosseum, consider the following statements:

1. It is the largest standing amphitheatre in the world.

2. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

3. It is located in the centre of Rome.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC may frame map-based or culture-oriented questions linking important world heritage monuments with their historical and geographical context. The Colosseum is globally significant as a symbol of ancient civilisation, architecture, and ancient engineering.

Explanation

— Located in the centre of Rome, the Colosseum is the largest ancient amphitheatre and is the largest standing amphitheatre in the world. The oval-shaped building spans 6 acres and measures 189 meters long, 156 meters wide, and 894 meters tall, consisting of three levels with a series of semicircular arches. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

— As per the official website, these arches are supported by pillars and columns of the travertine stone, and can accommodate up to 50,000 people. Its iconic arches stand nearly 30 metres tall, with a total of 80 arches forming part of its grand structure. The lower level was mainly used for administrative and organisational purposes, while the upper tiers were designed to accommodate large gatherings, assemblies, and public events for the Roman people.

— The exterior of the Colosseum was richly adorned with decorative stonework, including arches, niches, ornamental details, and gradually narrowing columns that enhanced its grandeur. On both sides of the monument, four principal entrances featured columned porticos that provided access to the arena’s galleries.

— The tourist attraction received over 90 million votes for the initiative taken by B Weber that landed the site on the list of New Wonders of the World. “Declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site and ‘One of the New Seven Wonders of the World’, the Colosseum is one of the most important and sought-after historical attractions in the world,” the website read. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements about the ‘Agricola Medal’:

1. It is considered one of the FAO’s highest honours.

2. It is awarded to individuals who have made significant contributions to advancing global food and agriculture systems.

3. Recently, the Indian Prime Minister, Narendra Modi became the first Indian to be conferred with the Agricola Medal.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The Agricola Medal awarded by the Food and Agriculture Organisation, highlights India’s role in global agricultural transformation and nutrition initiatives. The question links to food security, agriculture, and sustainable development are recurring areas in current affairs.

Explanation

— The Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred the FAO Agricola Medal in Rome, in recognition of his contributions to food security, sustainable agriculture, and rural development. In 2008, former PM Manmohan Singh was awarded the medal for his vital role in ‘modernising India’s agriculture and reducing hunger and poverty’. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The medal was presented by FAO Director-General Qu Dongyu during the ceremony at the UN agency’s Rome headquarters.

— The Agricola Medal is considered one of the FAO’s highest honours, awarded to individuals who have made significant contributions to advancing global food and agriculture systems. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Muga silk, consider the following statements:

1. It is a rare textile from the Western Ghats in Karnataka.

2. It is produced with the help of artificial dyes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2026 because traditional textiles, Geographical Indication (GI) products, and indigenous crafts are frequently linked with culture and economy-related current affairs.

Explanation

— Not just a packet of Indian toffee Melody, Prime Minister Narendra Modi also gifted two exquisite garment accessories — a Muga silk stole from Assam and an off-white Shirui Lily silk stole from Manipur — to his Italian counterpart Giorgia Meloni.

— Muga silk, known as the “golden silk” of Assam, is a rare textile from the Brahmaputra Valley. It is produced without any artificial dyes. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— The Shirui Lily silk stole draws its inspiration from the misty heights of Shirui Kashong Peak in Manipur. It is named after the rare Shirui Lily, a delicate bell-shaped flower with pale pinkish-white petals that blooms nowhere else in the world. The lily also holds deep cultural resonance in Italy, where it has long symbolised purity, grace and artistic refinement, frequently appearing in Renaissance art.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Which of the following committees had recommended bringing the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) under the Right to Information (RTI) Act?

(a) Justice Mudgal Committee

(b) Justice Verma Committee

(c) Lodha Committee

(d) Kelkar Committee

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2026 because issues related to transparency, accountability, and governance of autonomous bodies have frequently appeared in current affairs. UPSC can link such topics with statutory bodies, judicial interventions, and reforms in institutions exercising public functions despite being formally private entities.

Explanation

— The Central Information Commission held that the BCCI is not a “public authority” under the Right to Information Act and therefore cannot be compelled to disclose information under the law.

— The order came in a case filed by a Delhi resident who had sought to know under what authority the BCCI selects players to represent India, why governments provide stadiums and police security to what is technically a private association, and whether the government exercises any legal control over cricket administration in India.

— The BCCI’s position outside the ambit of both “State” under Article 12 of the Constitution and “public authority” under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act sits at the heart of the order.

— The National Sports Governance Act, 2025, which provides that sports bodies receiving grants from the government would be treated as public authorities under the RTI Act to the extent of utilisation of those funds. Since the BCCI receives no such grants, it falls outside this statutory extension.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for May 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 10 – May 16)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 03 – May 09)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 26 – May 02)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 19 – April 25)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 12 – April 18)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 05 to April 11, 2026)

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