UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 15 to March 21, 2026

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Methanol is in focus due to India’s push under the Methanol Economy Programme India for cleaner alternative fuels. It links directly with themes of waste-to-wealth, circular economy, and bioenergy, especially using agricultural residue and sewage.

Explanation:

— The Dimethyl Ether (DME) technology is a clean-burning fuel that can be produced domestically from sources such as methanol, coal, biomass, or even captured carbon dioxide. Moreover, DME can be blended with LPG and used in stoves with little to no modifications.

— The technology has already been tested on a semi-pilot scale (about 250 kg per day). This technology was developed over the past few years of research by scientists, focusing on both the catalyst and the process design.

— India currently imports methanol from countries including Iran, which could pose a challenge. However, Raja notes that methanol can be produced from several sources available domestically, such as coal, agricultural waste (biomass), Sewage Treatment Plants or even captured carbon dioxide.

— Methane is the main part of natural gas. It does not directly produce DME, but serves as a starting material. It is first converted into syngas (CO and H2), and then into methanol, which is used to produce DME. Methane can be sourced from both fossil fuels and renewable sources, DME production is flexible and future-ready.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Western Disturbances, consider the following statements:

1. These are rain-bearing wind systems, originating beyond Afghanistan and Iran.

2. They pick up moisture majorly from the Arabian Sea as they move eastward towards India.

3. The Western Disturbances trigger rain in the northwest and northern parts of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Western Disturbances are frequently in news due to unseasonal rainfall, hailstorms, and their impact on rabi crops, making them highly relevant for current affairs-based prelims questions. Questions help test conceptual clarity between Western Disturbances and monsoon systems, a common area for UPSC traps.

Explanation:

— Western Disturbances are rain-bearing wind systems, originating beyond Afghanistan and Iran. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The western disturbances pick up moisture from the Mediterranean Sea, the Black Sea, the Caspian Sea and the Arabian Sea as they move eastward towards India. Their primary moisture source is the Mediterranean region. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Since November last year, the Western Disturbance streams affecting India have been subdued in both frequency and intensity, directly affecting rainfall and snowfall.

— The Western Disturbances trigger rain (and snowfall in higher altitudes) in the northwest and northern parts of India during the non-monsoon months (June-September). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Consider the following statements about Global Warming Potential (GWP):

Statement 1: To convert methane emissions into CO₂ equivalent (CO₂e), the amount of methane emitted (in tonnes) is multiplied by a factor called the Global Warming Potential over 100 years (GWP100).

Statement 2: This factor represents how much warming methane causes compared with carbon dioxide over a 100-year period.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Global Warming Potential (GWP) is widely used in climate reports of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, making it a core concept in environmental science. It frequently appears in news due to debates on methane reduction targets, carbon accounting, and net-zero commitments.

Explanation:

— Climate policy uses a common unit to compare different greenhouse gases. That unit is called carbon dioxide equivalent, or CO2e. Since carbon dioxide is the benchmark gas, other gases such as methane are converted into CO2e using a multiplier called Global Warming Potential, or GWP. For more than 30 years, the world has mostly used GWP100, which measures the warming impact of a gas over a 100-year period. Under this system, one tonne of methane is assigned a fixed CO2-equivalent value.

— To convert methane emissions into CO₂ equivalent (CO₂e), the amount of methane emitted (in tonnes) is multiplied by a factor called the Global Warming Potential over 100 years (GWP100). This factor represents how much warming methane causes compared with carbon dioxide over a 100-year period. For methane, this value is approximately 28, meaning methane has about 28 times the warming impact of CO₂ over 100 years. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Methane and carbon dioxide behave very differently in the atmosphere. Methane is powerful but short-lived. Carbon dioxide is less intense in the short run but lasts much longer. When methane is averaged over 100 years, much of its near-term impact gets diluted. That means a methane cut made today may look less valuable on paper than it is in the atmosphere.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The conflict that has broken out in West Asia after the US and Israel attacked Iran, prompted the CBSE to cancel class 10 and 12 board exams across:

1. UAE

2. Iran

3. Egypt

4. Kuwait

5. Qatar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is based on recent geopolitical tensions in West Asia, a highly dynamic and frequently tested area. It highlights how global conflicts impact Indian diaspora and institutions abroad, including CBSE-affiliated schools.

Explanation:

— The conflict that has broken out in West Asia after the US and Israel attacked Iran, prompted the CBSE to cancel class 10 and 12 board exams across seven countries in the region. India’s largest national school board had around 52,000 students registered for the class 10 and 12 exams in these countries.

— The class 10 and 12 CBSE board exams began on February 17. With the US and Israel attacking Iran on February 28, and the conflict spreading to other countries in West Asia, the Board initially announced on March 1 that board exams scheduled to take place the next day would be postponed across seven countries – the UAE, Iran, Kuwait, Qatar, Bahrain, Oman, and Saudi Arabia. With no let-up in the conflict, the Board continued to postpone papers scheduled for March, before announcing on March 5 for class 10, and on March 15 for class 12, that all remaining exams would be cancelled.

— CBSE schools in these countries largely cater to the Indian diaspora, and follow the same curriculum as schools in the country. Going by the Board’s list of affiliated schools, there are 220 CBSE-affiliated schools in these seven countries, including a Kendriya Vidyalaya in Iran’s capital Tehran. The highest number of 110 schools is in the UAE, followed by 41 in Saudi Arabia, 22 in Kuwait, 20 in Qatar, 18 in Oman, and 8 in Bahrain.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

The Pearl Harbour is located on the:

(a) Island of Oahu in Hawaii

(b) Island of Guam in the Pacific Ocean

(c) Island of Luzon in the Philippines

(d) Island of Honshu in Japan

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Pearl Harbor is associated with the Attack on Pearl Harbor, a turning point in World War II, making it important for static history. The location lies in the Pacific Ocean, a region frequently in news due to evolving geopolitical tensions and maritime strategies.

Explanation:

— The December 7, 1941 attack on Pearl Harbour was among the most significant moments of World War II. It laid the ground for the US entry into the conflict — an involvement that would culminate with it dropping nuclear bombs on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945.

— On November 26, 1941, the Japanese Imperial Navy ordered an armada that included 414 planes aboard six aircraft carriers to set to sea. The ships maintained strict radio silence throughout their 5,600-km trek from Hitokappu Bay to a predetermined launch sector 230 miles north of the Hawaiian island of Oahu.

A photograph of the USS Shaw exploding amid the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor in Hawaii on December 7, 1941. (Wikimedia Commons)

— About 7.55 am on December 7, 1941, about 180 aircraft of the Imperial Japanese Navy attacked the US Naval base at Pearl Harbour on the island of Oahu in Hawaii.

— The bombing lasted nearly two hours, killing more than 2,300 Americans and destroying the battleships USS Arizona and USS Oklahoma. Roughly 160 aircraft were destroyed and 150 were damaged. The Naval officer at Pearl Harbour sent a hurried dispatch to the fleet units and major Navy commands that morning, “AIR RAID ON PEARL HARBOR X THIS IS NOT DRILL.”

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the ‘RELIEF’ scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme aims to ease pressure on exporters facing trade disruption due to logistical challenges.

2. The scheme does not include automatic extension of export obligations.

3. The scheme is applicable for the consignments destined for delivery or trans-shipment to West Asia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

It highlights government response to supply chain shocks, logistics bottlenecks, and trade facilitation, key areas in the economy syllabus. The question tests awareness of export promotion schemes and DGFT interventions, which are frequently asked in prelims.

Explanation:

— The Commerce and Industry Ministry announced a Rs 497-crore scheme to ease pressure on exporters facing trade disruption due to widespread logistical challenges, including near doubling of freight and fuel costs owing to the ongoing war in West Asia. Hence. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

— The Ministry said that the ‘RELIEF’ scheme would include automatic extension of export obligations, logistical support, and potential financial measures to manage shipping delays and would mainly include consignments destined for delivery or trans-shipment to the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Qatar, Oman, Bahrain, Iraq, Iran, Israel and Yemen. Hence. Statement 2 is not correct.

— The Ministry said, “Through ‘RELIEF’, the government aims to mitigate the immediate impact of logistics disruptions, protect exporter confidence, prevent order cancellations and safeguard employment in export-linked sectors. The intervention also reinforces India’s commitment to maintaining resilience and competitiveness in global trade during periods of uncertainty.”

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Consider the following statements:

1. For India, getting LPG cargoes from non-Hormuz regions is easy and takes less time.

2. Currently, for India, getting additional cargoes of crude from regions other than West Asia is relatively easier and faster compared to LPG or LNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is linked to recent disruptions around the Strait of Hormuz and the Red Sea, which are critical global energy chokepoints. India’s dependence on West Asia for oil and LPG makes such logistics-based questions highly relevant for energy security.

Explanation:

— India’s annual LPG consumption is currently estimated at around 33 million tonnes, of which domestic production is around 13 million tonnes, or around 40%. This means that India’s import dependency for LPG supplies is around 60%. Now, in the case of crude oil, the reliance on imports is much higher at over 88%.

— A key reason is that India’s reliance on the Strait of Hormuz for crude is around 40%, while in the case of LPG, it is a whopping 90%. This effectively means that with the chokepoint all but closed, as much as 54% of India’s LPG supply has simply disappeared.

— The government and oil companies are getting some LPG cargoes from non-Hormuz regions, particularly North America, but these will take weeks to reach India than West Asian cargoes, which usually take a few days. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— As for crude, getting extra cargoes from regions other than West Asia has been relatively easier and faster so far as compared to LPG, or even LNG. For instance, millions of barrels of Russian crude that were idling in tankers in international waters around India before the conflict are taking just a few days to arrive at Indian ports. India also has relatively higher levels of stockpiles of oil, petrol, and diesel, as compared to LPG and even LNG, which have hardly anything additional stocked up beyond what is there in the supply chain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following statements is/are not correct about Diego Garcia?

1. It is the largest island in the Chagos Archipelago.

2. It lies in the central Indian Ocean.

3. It is a joint India-UK military base.

4. In 1814, Portuguese ceded the islands to the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Diego Garcia has been in news due to the Chagos Archipelago sovereignty dispute between the UK and Mauritius. UPSC can ask map-based and geopolitics combined questions, especially on islands, bases, and territorial disputes.

Explanation:

— Iran fired two ballistic missiles at Diego Garcia, a joint US-UK military base in the middle of the Indian Ocean. While neither missile hit its target (one failed mid-flight and a US warship fired an SM-3 interceptor at the second). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The attack is still significant for one key reason — Diego Garcia is 4,000 km from Iran in the central Indian Ocean, south of India and southwest of Sri Lanka. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Diego Garcia is the largest island in the Chagos Archipelago and one of only two critical US bomber bases in the Indo-Pacific region, the other being Andersen Air Force Base in Guam. The base hosts bombers, nuclear submarines, and guided-missile destroyers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Diego Garcia sits approximately 3,000 km from both the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait at the mouth of the Red Sea and the Malacca Strait near the South China Sea. This strategic location allows long-range bombers to reach the the two critical maritime chokepoints. The base is also critical to US Space Force tracking infrastructure.

— These islands were uninhabited until the late 18th century, when the French brought in slave labour from Africa and India to work in newly established coconut plantations. In 1814, France ceded the islands to the British. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the wheat, consider the following statements:

1. It is the largest crop in terms of area coverage.

2. Madhya Pradesh top wheat-producing state in the country in 2023-24.

3. It is a kharif crop.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question helps test clarity on cropping seasons (rabi vs kharif) and state-wise production patterns, a recurring UPSC prelims theme. It is linked to current issues like price rise, buffer stocks, climate impacts (heatwaves, Western Disturbances) affecting wheat output.

Explanation:

— Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan reviewed the crop situation in the country following hailstorms and unseasonal rain across several parts of the country, and directed officials to conduct a thorough and scientific assessment so that insurance claims can be processed accurately.

— Hailstorms and unseasonal rains have been reported from several parts of the country at a time when wheat, the biggest rabi season crop, is ready for harvesting in several states. The unseasonal rains are likely to affect the wheat output. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The government has set a wheat production target of 119 million tonnes during the rabi 2025 season, which is 1.26 per cent higher than last year’s output of 117.51 million tonnes.

— Wheat is the second largest crop (after paddy) in terms of area coverage. In 2023-24, the area under wheat cultivation stood at 318.33 lakh hectares. Uttar Pradesh is the top wheat-producing state in the country, followed by Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Bihar, Gujarat and Maharashtra. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

The definition of an “industry” is provided in the:

(a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

(b) Factories Act, 1948

(c) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946

(d) Trade Unions Act, 1926

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The definition of “industry” has been a contentious legal issue, especially after judicial expansion in the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa. It is relevant in the context of labour reforms, formalisation of workforce, and industrial relations, which are frequently in news.

Explanation:

— A nine-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court is hearing arguments this week to settle a decades-old legal debate: what exactly constitutes an “industry” under Indian law?

— The definition of an “industry” – earlier under the erstwhile Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and now under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, which is set to replace it – determines which workplaces are covered by the law and, consequently, which employees are entitled to a higher degree of statutory protection regarding wages, working hours, strikes and protection against arbitrary dismissal, among other things.

— The bench is led by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and comprises Justices B V Nagarathna, P S Narasimha, Dipankar Datta, Ujjal Bhuyan, S C Sharma, Joymalya Bagchi, Alok Aradhe and Vipul M Pancholi. It will re-examine a landmark 1978 Supreme Court judgment that had interpreted the term broadly, as a result of which hospitals, educational institutions, philanthropic organisations and even government welfare departments ended up under the umbrella of the Industrial Disputes Act.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

With reference to the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana (BHAVYA), recently approved by the government, consider the following statements:

1. It focuses on promoting heavy manufacturing industries through cluster-based industrial corridors.

2. It provides incentives exclusively for heavy industries located in designated coastal economic zones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This has been often in news these days as part of government efforts to boost industrial infrastructure and manufacturing competitiveness. It is relevant for UPSC as it links economic policy initiatives with industrial development and ease of doing business.

Explanation:

— The government on Wednesday approved Rs 33,660 crore Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA) to develop 100 plug-and-play industrial parks across the country.

— The scheme — cleared by the Union Cabinet on Wednesday — aims to develop world-class industrial infrastructure, unlocking manufacturing potential and driving India’s growth story, Information and Broadcasting Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw said while briefing reporters on Cabinet decisions.

— Under the scheme, industrial parks ranging from 100 to 1,000 acres will be taken up for the development with financial support of up to Rs 1 crore per acre. These parks will have core infrastructure like internal roads, underground utilities, drainage, common treatment facilities, ICT and administrative systems, Vaishnaw said.

— There would be ready-built factory sheds, built-to-suit units, testing labs, warehousing and social infrastructure, including houses for workers.

— Vaishnaw said the support for external infrastructure will also be provided up to 25 per cent of the project cost, while project selection will be undertaken through a challenge mode, ensuring that only high-quality, investment-ready proposals are taken forward.

— Building on the success of Industrial Smart Cities developed under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP) framework, Vaishnaw said BHAVYA will be implemented in partnership with states and private sector players.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Which of the following is true with reference to Exercise Sea Dragon?

(a) It is a United States Navy-led, multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) training exercise involving India, Japan, and New Zealand.

(b) It is a joint military exercise between India and Japan, the 6th edition of which was concluded at the East Fuji Training Area in Japan.

(c) It is a joint exercise demonstrating deepening cooperation between the Indian Navy and the UK’s Royal Navy, showcasing a shared commitment to maritime security and robust bilateral ties.

(d) None of the above

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This has been often in news these days as part of growing maritime cooperation and strategic alignment in the Indo-Pacific region. It is relevant for UPSC as it tests awareness of military exercises, which reflect evolving defence partnerships and regional security dynamics.

Explanation:

— Held throughout March, Exercise Sea Dragon 26 is a United States Navy-led, multinational, Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) training activity involving the Indian Navy, Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force and the Royal New Zealand Air Force.

— The multinational exercise is being conducted to strengthen cooperation among allied forces of participating nations and improve understanding for better anti-submarine warfare capabilities in the Indo-Pacific region.

— Participants will be challenged on speed, accuracy and coordinated mission execution, strengthening ASW proficiency and enhancing interoperability among partner forces.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Recently seen in news, Semaglutide refers to:

(a) A vaccine used for the prevention of viral infections such as influenza

(b) A popular weight loss drug

(c) A diagnostic tool used in early detection of cancer

(d) A nutritional supplement used to treat protein deficiency

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This has been often in news these days due to rising global demand for anti-obesity drugs and discussions around affordable generics. It is relevant for UPSC as it connects developments in pharmaceuticals with public health and regulatory frameworks.

Explanation:

— Several generic versions of the popular weight loss drug semaglutide are likely to become available Saturday (March 21) onwards, following the expiry of Novo Nordisk’s patent today. Several of India’s top drug manufacturers will launch their products, with as many as 50 brands likely to become available.

— The cost is expected to drop by at least a third to a fifth of the existing cost, increasing access to the medication.

— The lower dose version of semaglutide is meant for the treatment of type-2 diabetes, along with lifestyle interventions such as diet and exercise.

— The higher dose version is meant for those who are obese with a BMI of over 30 or those who are overweight with a BMI of over 27 but have other obesity-related co-morbid conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, or high cholesterol levels. The drug is usually prescribed for those who are struggling to lose weight, even with lifestyle modification, with doctors warning that these interventions need to continue even when a person starts taking semaglutide.

— An estimated 254 million people are living with obesity in India, according to the India study. This number increases to 351 million if abdominal obesity is considered. Abdominal obesity is the accumulation of fat around the waist, which is known to increase the risk of obesity-related conditions more than generalised fat.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), often seen in news, refers to:

(a) A United Nations framework to regulate emergency humanitarian aid during conflicts

(b) A law of the United States that empowers the President to regulate commerce after declaring a national emergency in response to external threats

(c) An international treaty governing global financial stability during economic crises

(d) A World Bank mechanism to provide emergency loans to countries facing balance of payments crises

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This has been often in news these days in the context of economic sanctions and executive powers exercised during international crises. It is important for UPSC as it links static concepts of governance with current developments in global trade and diplomacy.

Explanation:

— With the US Supreme Court scrapping the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) tariffs last month, the Trump administration has imposed 10% global tariffs under Section 122 for five months. But the United States Trade Representative (USTR), amid the turmoil in West Asia, could be working on a new tariff structure that could serve as the legal basis for its trade agreements.

— The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) provides the President of the United States of America broad authority to regulate a variety of economic transactions following a declaration of national emergency.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Consider the following statements:

1.South Pars, the world’s largest natural gas field, is located in the Persian Gulf.

2.The world’s largest liquefied natural gas (LNG) facility is located at Ras Laffan Industrial City in Qatar.

3.The SAMREF refinery is located on Kharg Island, which is Iran’s closest offshore refinery.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant for UPSC as it tests awareness of global energy geography, especially key natural gas reserves and LNG infrastructure in the Persian Gulf, an area crucial for India’s energy security. It also checks factual clarity about strategic oil and gas locations, often in news due to geopolitical tensions in West Asia.

Explanation:

— Hours after Israel hit South Pars, the world’s largest natural gas field located in the Persian Gulf and shared between Iran and Qatar, Iranian missiles on Thursday morning (March 19) struck the world’s biggest liquefied natural gas (LNG) facility in Qatar’s Ras Laffan Industrial City.

Attacks on energy infra in West Asia.

— These attacks have marked a major escalation in the conflict raging in West Asia, with specific energy infrastructure now being targeted, raising prolonged risks of supply disruption. Consequently, the price of international oil benchmark Brent, which was already at a little over $100 per barrel this week, has now hit around $118. It is now over 50% higher than the pre-West Asia conflict levels. Natural gas prices also shot up significantly.

— Iran released a statement hours earlier that it would also target other facilities in the UAE and Saudi Arabia, apart from Ras Laffan, in response to the attack on the South Pars gas field. Saudi Arabia and the UAE have said they intercepted missiles and drones from Iran. Saudi Arabia also said a drone hit its SAMREF refinery in the port city of Yanbu on the Red Sea. There are reports of energy infrastructure being hit in Kuwait, too.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 08 to March 14, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 01 to March 07, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 22 to February 28, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 15 to February 21, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 08 to February 14, 2026

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