UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 14 – June 20) : 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2027

1. Sanshodhak – Advanced stealth frigate

2. Dunagiri – Survey vessel

3. Agray – Anti-submarine warfare shallow water craft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The commissioning of new indigenously built Indian Navy platforms is an important current affairs development under Aatmanirbhar Bharat and maritime security. The question tests the ability to distinguish between different classes of naval vessels.

Explanation

— The Indian Navy will commission three indigenously built frontline platforms — Dunagiri, Sanshodhak, and Agray — in Kolkata on Sunday, and the ceremony will be presided over by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

— Dunagiri is an advanced stealth frigate, Sanshodhak is a survey vessel (large), and Agray is an anti-submarine warfare shallow water craft.

— Dunagiri, the fifth Project 17A stealth frigate, is equipped with advanced weapons and sensors, including BrahMos surface-to-surface missiles and the medium range surface-to-air missile system, significantly enhancing the Navy’s combat capability. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

— Sanshodhak, the fourth survey vessel (large), is designed for coastal and deep-water hydrographic surveys and collection of oceanographic and geophysical data for defence and civil applications, and is equipped with advanced survey systems including autonomous underwater vehicles and remotely operated vehicles. Hence, pair 1 is not correct.

— Agray, the fourth of the Arnala-class anti-submarine warfare shallow water craft, is equipped with lightweight torpedoes, indigenous rocket launchers, and shallow-water sonar systems to detect and engage underwater threats in littoral waters. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. A tiger reserve can transfer or donate tigers to another tiger reserve in exchange for other wildlife species without requiring approval from the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

2. The relocation or exchange of wildlife between protected areas is undertaken to improve genetic diversity, restore locally extinct species, or strengthen ecosystem management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can ask conceptual questions on protected area management, species translocation, and the role of the NTCA. The topic integrates current affairs with environmental governance, making it highly relevant for Prelims 2027.

Explanation

— Madhya Pradesh may soon send tigers and gaurs to Andhra Pradesh under an inter-state wildlife exchange programme, with the southern state expected to provide wild dogs and other species in return, Chief Minister Mohan Yadav announced during a review meeting of the Forest Department.

— The move comes as Madhya Pradesh continues to hold the country’s largest tiger population and has increasingly emerged as a donor state for wildlife translocation projects. In recent months, the state has approved the relocation of tigers to Rajasthan, Odisha and Chhattisgarh to strengthen tiger populations in reserves with lower densities. Earlier this year, a tigress from Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve was shifted to Rajasthan’s Mukundra Tiger Reserve as part of a population management exercise.

— The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and other relevant authorities must approve any interstate transfer or exchange of tigers. These exchanges are carried out for conservation goals, such as increasing genetic diversity, reintroducing species, restoring ecological balance, and strengthening wildlife populations. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to India’s Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) system, consider the following statements:

1. India’s BMD system is designed to intercept hostile ballistic missiles through a multi-layered defence architecture.

2. The recently demonstrated indigenous BMD system is capable of intercepting hypersonic cruise missiles in all phases of their flight.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can test concepts related to missile systems, air defence architecture, and indigenous defence capabilities. The topic links current affairs with static defence concepts, making it highly relevant for Prelims 2027.

Explanation

— The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully tested a Multi-layered Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) capability.

— This system can engage targets, including Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs). With this advancement, India joins an elite group of nations that possess the ability to defend against ICBMs. The interception of hypersonic cruise missiles presents different technological challenges and requires different interception mechanisms. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Multi-layered BMD capability was successfully demonstrated during the tests, which were conducted on June 10 and 11. The interceptors successfully engaged their respective targets. The systems are designed and developed with the latest technologies to address the emerging missile threats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the fly ash, consider the following statements:

1. It is a by-product of thermal power generation.

2. It requires safe and sustainable management.

3. It can be used for road construction and brick manufacturing.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There is no correct statement.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Fly ash was in the news following the Centre’s revised guidelines on fly ash management and utilisation. The topic combines current affairs with static environmental concepts, making it relevant for Prelims 2027.

Explanation

— The Ministry of Railways is planning a dedicated logistics network to transport nearly 340 million tonnes of fly ash generated annually by thermal power plants across the country.

— Fly ash is one of the largest by-products of thermal power generation, posing both an environmental challenge and an economic opportunity. While it requires safe and sustainable management, fly ash also holds significant potential as a valuable resource for the infrastructure and industrial sectors. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— According to the national transporter, the aim is to transport fly ash from thermal power plants to industries where it can be used for road construction, brick manufacturing, cement production and other infrastructure projects nationwide. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Nearly 340 million tonnes of fly ash is generated every year from thermal power plants. For decades, this grey burden sat heavy around the smokestacks. Now, Indian Railways is changing that through a green initiative, creating a dedicated logistics network of specialised containers and rail corridors. This network will transport the waste material from where it is generated to where it is needed.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT), consider the following statements:

1. It was set up in 2007 to provide for the adjudication or trial of disputes and complaints with respect to commission, appointments, enrolment and conditions of service.

2. It has its Principal Bench at Guwahati.

3. The Armed Forces Tribunal exercises jurisdiction over personnel of the Army, Navy, Air Force, and the Indian Coast Guard.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) was in the news due to recent judicial developments involving service matters and the Armed Forces. UPSC can ask questions on constitutional and statutory bodies, including their composition, jurisdiction, and functions.

Explanation

— The Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) in New Delhi has set aside the entire General Court Martial (GCM) proceedings against a Flight Lieutenant, acquitted him of all charges, and directed his reinstatement in the Indian Air Force with full consequential benefits, including rank, seniority, promotions, and back wages.

About AFT

— The Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) was established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 to adjudicate or trial disputes and complaints regarding commissions, appointments, enrolment, and conditions of service for individuals subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Navy Act, 1957, and the Air Force Act, 1950, as well as to provide for appeals arising out of orders, findings, or sentences of courts-martial held under the aforementioned Acts and for matters connected. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Armed Forces Tribunal comprises a principal bench in New Delhi and ten regional benches in Jaipur, Chandigarh, Lucknow, Guwahati, Kolkata, Chennai, Kochi, Mumbai, Jabalpur, and Srinagar. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The AFT has jurisdiction over the Army, Navy, and Air Force, but not the Indian Coast Guard. The Indian Coast Guard operates under an entirely separate legal framework—the Coast Guard Act, 1978. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.pib.gov.in)

QUESTION 6

The BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) hacking is a technique in which:

(a) malicious software permanently encrypts a computer’s files and demands payment for their release.

(b) unauthorised users gain access to a network by exploiting weaknesses in Wi-Fi encryption protocols.

(c) internet traffic is misdirected by falsely advertising the route to a website or online service.

(d) attackers overwhelm a server with excessive requests, making the website or online service unavailable to legitimate users.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The topic combines current affairs with static concepts related to internet architecture and cyber threats, making it highly relevant for UPSC Prelims 2027. UPSC’s focus has increased on cybersecurity, digital infrastructure, and emerging technologies in recent Prelims.

Explanation

— A day after Telegram was temporarily banned by the Union government, the messaging platform’s founder and CEO Pavel Durov claimed that access to the app was being compromised through a “rogue method” called BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) hijacking.

— BGP hacking is a technique in which internet traffic is misdirected by falsely advertising the route to a website or online service.

— The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the internet’s routing system. It tells networks across the world how to reach specific IP addresses. If a network falsely announces that it is the preferred route to a destination, traffic can be diverted, intercepted or blackholed. This is known as BGP hijacking.

— Every major telecom operator, cloud provider, content delivery network and internet service provider runs an Autonomous System (AS), a large network identified by a unique number. BGP is the protocol these networks use to tell each how traffic through these networks should reach a specific IP address.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Consider the following statements:

1. India is the largest supplier of maritime personnel to the global seafaring workforce.

2. The number of Indian seafarers has increased more than fivefold over the past one-and-a-half decades.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

India’s maritime sector was in the news due to the Day of the Seafarer and initiatives to strengthen the country’s global maritime workforce. The topic integrates current affairs with static concepts related to maritime trade, human resources, and the blue economy, making it relevant for UPSC Prelims 2027.

Explanation

— As the number of Indian seafarers has increased more than fivefold over the past one-and-a-half decades, the workforce composition has shifted distinctly towards non-officers, with more ratings — hands-on operational or technical crew — joining ships. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— According to data maintained by the Directorate General of Shipping, the officer-to-rating ratio among Indian seafarers has flipped from 60:40 in 2010 to 35:65 in 2024. Globally, the officer-to-rating ratio stands at 45:55.

— Between 2010 and 2024, the number of engineering crew more than tripled from 25,844 to 100,792, while the strength of nautical crew increased more than fivefold from 36,423 to 207,109.

Indian seafarers: Composition of crew (2010-2024)

— In 2024, half of the non-engineering Indian crew were working as cooks, hospitality staff, salon ratings, cruise vessel staff, wipers, cleaners, painters, and lookout staff. In 2010, less than 37% were engaged in these roles.

— At the same time, the number of Indian bosuns — the senior-most non-officer deckhands — rose from none in 2010 to 4,324 in 2024, and the number of Able Seamen increased from 708 to 16,568 over the same period.

— India ranks among the top three suppliers of maritime personnel, alongside the Philippines and China, accounting for approximately 17% of the global seafaring workforce: about 3.23 lakh seafarers out of a global total of 1.89 million. Today, nearly one in five seafarers globally is Indian. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements about the statue of the Dancing Girl of the Harappan civilisation:

1. It was discovered in 1926 inside a small house at the Harappan site of Mohenjo-Daro.

2. The statue is housed at the National Museum in New Delhi.

3. It was made using the lost-wax casting technique.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The Harappan ‘Dancing Girl’ was in the news following renewed discussions on its artistic significance and cultural heritage. UPSC can ask questions on the Indus Valley Civilization, particularly its art, metallurgy, archaeological discoveries, and important artefacts.

Explanation

— The controversy over the NCERT’s decision to modify and then restore the original image of the Harappan “Dancing Girl” in its Class 9 Arts Education textbook has raised questions about preserving the past in its original form or adapting it to contemporary social sensibilities.

— The Dancing Girl belongs to the Harappan civilisation, which dates back to approximately circa 2600-1900 BCE. Discovered in 1926 inside a small house at the Harappan site of Mohenjo-daro (in present-day Pakistan), the figurine represents a 10.8 cm-high bronze figure of a woman, with her head tilted backwards and slightly bent knees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The statue, now housed at the National Museum in New Delhi, was made using the lost-wax casting technique, which is still used in many parts of India. Its use nearly 4,500 years ago is a testament to the advancements of ancient Indian metallurgy. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Consider the following statements:

1. The members of the Council of States are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the respective States.

2. The election of members to the Council of States is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The Rajya Sabha elections were recently in the news, bringing renewed attention to the constitutional provisions governing the Council of States. The topic combines current affairs with static polity concepts, making it highly relevant for UPSC Prelims 2027.

Explanation

— Voting has begun in two Rajya Sabha seats in Jharkhand and one in Mizoram, amid strict security arrangements in the respective assembly premises, news agency PTI reported.

How is a member of the Rajya Sabha elected?

— The representatives of each State in the Council of States are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the respective States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— The representatives of the Union territories in the Council of States are chosen in such manner as Parliament may, by law, prescribe.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: cms.rajyasabha.nic.in)

QUESTION 10

With reference to the ‘Bonn Challenge’ initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It is a global initiative launched with the efforts of the United Nations.

2. It promotes Forest Landscape Restoration (FLR).

3. India had pledged to restore 13 million hectares with an additional eight million hectares by 2047.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The Bonn Challenge was in the news following the release of a report highlighting India’s progress in restoring degraded and deforested landscapes. The topic integrates current affairs with static concepts related to forest landscape restoration and climate action, making it relevant for Prelims 2027.

Explanation

— India has restored 21.7 million hectares of degraded and deforested land between 2011 and 2020, according to the country’s second progress report on the Bonn Challenge released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) on 17th June, 2026. This includes restoration through planted forests, natural regeneration, silviculture, agroforestry, and mangrove restoration.

Bonn Challenge

— The Bonn Challenge is a global initiative launched in 2011, with the efforts of the Government of Germany and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). IUCN acts as the Secretariat of the Bonn Challenge. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Bonn Challenge commits to restoring 150 million hectares of degraded and deforested landscapes by 2020, with an additional target of 350 million hectares by 2030. India pledged to restore 13 million hectares by 2020, with an additional eight million hectares by 2030. This was revised to 26 million hectares by 2030 as announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the 14th United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification held in 2019 in India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— In India, 1.45 million hectares, or 0.44 per cent of the total geographical area, experienced degradation between 2011-13 and 2018-19, while 97.85 million hectares, or 29.77 per cent of the country’s geographical area, are affected by land degradation and desertification.

— The Bonn Challenge is a direct contribution to the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. It offers a practical way of achieving international commitments, including the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), Aichi Biodiversity Targets of the Convention on Biodiversity (CBD), and the Paris Agreement. It promotes Forest Landscape Restoration (FLR), which prioritises both biodiversity conservation and human livelihoods. IUCN and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) coined the term forest landscape restoration in 2000 as a framework for managing landscapes, complementing both forest conservation and sustainable management. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 07 – June 13)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 31 – June 06)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 24 – May 30)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 17 – May 23)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 10 – May 16)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 03 – May 09)

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