UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 07 – June 13) : 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2027

2. It has been designed for high-intensity modern warfare.

3. It is capable of carrying only one person.

4. Its primary missions include close air support and destroying armoured formations.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) All four

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because the AH-64 Apache has been in the news due to the induction and deployment of Apache attack helicopters by the Indian armed forces. The Apache fits the same category of defence-current-affairs topics that UPSC often converts into factual prelims questions

Explanation

— The latest round of attacks exchanged between the US and Iran as part of the ongoing war in West Asia saw US forces strike Iranian air defence installations, ground control stations, and surveillance radar sites near the narrow waterway of the Strait of Hormuz. This, the US Central Command said in a post on X, was a “proportional response” to what it called “unjustified Iranian aggression” even as a nominal ceasefire remains in place.

— Manufactured by US aerospace major Boeing, the AH-64 Apache is one of the US Army’s most battle-proven and technologically advanced attack helicopters. Designed for high-intensity modern warfare, it combines lethal firepower, advanced sensors, and ability to withstand hostilities in contested environments. Its primary missions include close air support, destroying armoured formations, and escort operations. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statements 2 and 4 are correct.

— The helicopter carries a mix of weapons, including a 30mm chain gun, 70mm rockets, and Hellfire missiles. The Apache seats two crew members, with the pilot positioned behind and above the co-pilot and gunner, both of whom are capable of flying the aircraft and independently operating its weapons system. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The Apache, whose development began in the 1970s and went on through the 1980s, was first used in combat in 1989 during US military action in Panama. It was subsequently deployed against Iraq during the Gulf War (1990-91), as well as in operations in Turkey, Bosnia, and Kosovo. It has also seen extensive action in Iraq and Afghanistan in the 2000s and has been deployed across various global theatres.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements about the Ayushman Bharat sche­me:

1. The scheme aims to provide cashless hospitalisation coverage of ₹5,00,000 per family per year.

2. The scheme is intended for poor and vulnerable families for primary healthcare services.

3. The scheme does not include non-communicable disease care.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because Ayushman Bharat continues to be one of India’s most important health-sector initiatives and has witnessed significant policy developments in recent years. UPSC frequently asks questions that combine a flagship government scheme with a common misconception.

Explanation

— As the new West Bengal government prepares to roll out the Ayushman Bharat scheme across the state, people covered under the local health policy — Swasthya Sathi — are also likely to be brought under the ambit of the Centre’s flagship insurance scheme, sources said.

— The Ayushman Bharat sche­me is expected to cover around 1.43 crore poor families, elderly and fron­tline workers in Bengal. The Swasthya Sathi scheme, on the other hand, provides near-universal annual health coverage of up to Rs 5 lakh per family to around 2.45 crore families not covered by government health schemes.

About Ayushman Bharat sche­me

— The scheme “Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana” implemented by the National Health Authority (NHA) under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, aims to provide cashless hospitalisation coverage of ₹5,00,000 per family per year to poor and vulnerable families for secondary and tertiary healthcare services. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The scheme aims to provide comprehensive primary healthcare services, including maternal and child health, non-communicable disease care, free essential drugs, and diagnostics, close to people’s homes. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The second component under Ayushman Bharat is the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojna or PM-JAY as it is popularly known. It aims to provide cashless health insurance coverage of up to ₹5,00,000 per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization to poor and vulnerable families.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.myscheme.gov.in)

QUESTION 3

With reference to the election symbol, consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission allots election symbols to parties and independent candidates as per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.

2. The recognised national and state parties’ candidates are allotted the reserved symbol of their respective parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Election symbols and party recognition are recurring UPSC Polity topics. The question combines static polity with current electoral developments, making it a potential Prelims topic.

Explanation

— Ever since Chief Justice of India Surya Kant remarked during a hearing last month that a section of unemployed youth had become “cockroaches”, the image of the insect has come to be used by those protesting against the statement as well as the satirical Cockroach Janta Party (CJP).

— Even if the CJP were to register as a party and apply for the cockroach as its election symbol, the EC is unlikely to allot it.

— The EC allots election symbols to parties and independent candidates as per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. According to the Symbols Order, the recognised national and state parties’ candidates are allotted the reserved symbol of their respective parties — for instance, the lotus for the BJP, or the raised hand for the Congress. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— For unrecognised parties, which are registered parties that have not met the electoral performance criteria for the national or state party tag, or independent candidates, the EC allots symbols from a list of “free symbols”. These candidates and unrecognised parties can request for their choice of symbol from the list, but they are not assured of getting the same. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— In the list of free symbols, which the EC revises from time to time, images include fruits, vegetables, household appliances, farm equipment, sports equipment, etc. The latest list, which was published by the EC on May 23, 2025, has 184 symbols, including air-conditioner, balloon, door bell, dustbin, frying pan, jackfruit, and grapes.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the RBI’s Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR) (Bank) deposit swap scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to boost foreign inflows.

2. FCNR(B) deposits are fixed-term deposits designed for Non-Resident Indians.

3. Overseas Citizens of India are not eligible for the scheme.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This topic is important because the RBI’s 2026 FCNR(B) swap window is a significant monetary-policy and external-sector measure aimed at strengthening foreign exchange inflows and managing pressure on the rupee. It combines current affairs with concepts from banking, balance of payments, and RBI instruments, making it a potential UPSC Prelims 2027 topic.

Explanation

— The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) deposit swap scheme, which aims to boost foreign inflows, is set to reward non-resident Indians (NRIs) with an alluring investment opportunity. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Banks began raising interest rates on these deposits, with HDFC Bank increasing interest rates by more than 200 basis points to 6% on three to five-year deposits. YES Bank is offering an even higher 6.5-6.6%. One basis point is one-hundredth of a percentage point.

— That idea was the swap scheme for banks’ Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) deposits, or FCNR(B) deposits: these are fixed-term deposits designed for Non-Resident Indians, Persons of Indian Origin, and Overseas Citizens of India. Such deposits allow account holders to park their earnings abroad in freely convertible foreign currencies without having to convert them into rupees. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following petrol blends is currently available in India?

1. E20

2. E22

3. E27

4. E30

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because ethanol blending in petrol is a major policy initiative under India’s energy security, climate, and biofuel strategies. Thus, the question combines a current policy development with a basic conceptual understanding of biofuels, making it a strong UPSC Prelims topic.

Explanation

— The Centre has exempted excise duty on petrol blends containing 22%, 25%, 27%, and 30% ethanol, following the approval of new fuel standards. The move is expected to encourage adoption of higher ethanol blends beyond the current E20 mandate, aiming to reduce crude oil imports, boost domestic biofuel use, and increase energy security amid global supply uncertainties.

— The announcement comes shortly after the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) introduced fuel-quality specifications for E22, E25, E27 and E30 petrol blends. Effective from May 15, 2026, the standards outline key parameters such as ethanol concentration, octane requirements, sulphur content, testing protocols and safety norms.

— E22, E27, and E30 have not been rolled out yet; only the standards have been notified.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog, consider the following statements:

1. The meeting is chaired by the Vice-Chairperson of the NITI Aayog.

2. The theme for the 11th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog was “Inclusive Human Development for Viksit Bharat@2047”.

3. The chief ministers of the States do not take part in the meeting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant for UPSC Prelims 2027 because it tests knowledge of current institutional developments, governance mechanisms, and NITI Aayog, which are recurring themes in Polity and Governance. Similar questions have been asked in the past on bodies such as the Finance Commission, GST Council, Inter-State Council, and NITI Aayog.

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi asked states to pursue investments from par­t­ner countries by addressing gri­evances rapidly and to come up with district-level GDP estimates to deal with growth-related challenges at the grassroots level.

— He was addressing the 11th Governing Council meeting of Niti Aayog which was attended by all Chief Ministers including those appointed recently — Tamil Nadu’s C Joseph Vijay, West Bengal’s Suvendu Adhikari, Karnataka’s D K Shivakumar, and Kerala’s V D Satheesan. Niti Aayog members said the CMs sought more support for elderly care and professional skilling.

— “This was the first time when Chief Ministers of all 28 states participated in the Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog,” an official statement said. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The theme of the 11th Governing Council Meeting (2026) was “Inclusive Human Development for Viksit Bharat @2047”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following states in India has become the first to announce free education for admission in government colleges and universities?

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Sikkim

(c) Karnataka

(d) Odisha

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This is a significant education policy initiative and is relevant under governance, social justice, and current affairs. UPSC often asks questions on pioneering state-level welfare schemes and education reforms.

Explanation

— Students taking admission in government colleges and universities in Odisha will no longer have to pay fees, with the state government announcing that education will be “free and universal”.

— Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi Friday announced free education from kindergarten to postgraduate level (“KG to PG”) as the BJP government completed two years in office.

— Odisha is the first state in the country to make such a provision in the education sector. It will immensely benefit the scholars especially the economically backward section.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following pairs with reference to the Naval stations in India:

1. INS Rajali – Kochi

2. INS Dega – Visakhapatnam

3. INS Baaz – Mumbai

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Naval bases, military infrastructure, island territories, maritime security, and strategic locations in the Indian Ocean Region are recurring themes in UPSC Prelims.

Explanation

— Congress leader Jairam Ramesh wrote to Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, urging him to reconsider the government’s rejection of the full expansion of INS Baaz Naval Air Station on the Great Nicobar Island, as doing so would minimise the ecological impacts of the Great Nicobar Island project compared to the greenfield airport planned at Gandhi Nagar -Shastri Nagar. Hence, pair 3 is not correct.

— Referring to recent media reports based on the Defence Ministry’s assertion that the INS Baaz on Campbell Bay could not be extended beyond 4,500 feet due to ecological impacts, the former environment minister questioned it and pointed out the ecological impacts of the airport site chosen by the Centre.

— INS Rajali is located at Arakkonam, Tamil Nadu. Hence, pair 1 is not correct.

— INS Dega is located at Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. Hence, pair 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the proposed Telecommunications (Television, Radio and Associated Services) Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The rules mandate that TV channels should air at least 60 minutes of content every day on themes of national importance.

2. Channels going off air for more than 60 consecutive days must notify the government and provide an explanation of the reasons.

3. Private FM stations would need to broadcast at least an hour of programmes of “social relevance”.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The proposed Telecommunications (Television, Radio and Associated Services) Rules, 2026 are relevant because they deal with the regulation of broadcasting services, a major governance and media-policy development. This topic combines current affairs with Polity/Governance and Science & Technology (communications), making it a potential source of Prelims questions.

Explanation

— The draft Telecommunications (Television, Radio and Associated Services) Rules, 2026, consolidate various existing guidelines governing television, radio, and related services, replacing the regulatory framework that operated under the Telegraph Act of 1885. Stakeholders have been invited to submit comments on the draft rules by July 27.

— The proposed rules will cover television channels, Direct-to-Home (DTH) services, Headend-in-the-Sky (HITS) platforms, teleport, private FM radio, community radio stations, news agencies supplying footage to television, and Internet Protocol Television (IPTV) services under the Telecommunications Act, 2023.

— The rules mandate that TV channels should air at least 30 minutes of content every day on themes of national importance and social relevance between 6 am and 11 pm. The topics suggested range from education, agriculture and healthcare to science, women’s welfare, environmental protection and national integration. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Television channels would also be required to stay active throughout the validity of their authorisation, according to the draft rules. Channels going off air for more than 60 consecutive days must notify the government and provide an explanation of the reasons, they added. Their authorisation can lapse if operations remain suspended for over 90 continuous days. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Private FM stations would need to broadcast at least an hour of programmes of “social relevance” while ensuring that at least 20% of their daily content is locally produced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The rules state that private radio services must remain free-to-air, emphasising they cannot charge listeners for access.

— The draft rules propose an authorisation period of 10 years for television channels, teleports, television news agencies and community radio services, 15 years for private FM radio operators, and 20 years for television channel distribution services.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, consider the following statements:

1. A GI tag is awarded under the Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999.

2. It is granted by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

3. The GI tag is valid for 20 years.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant for UPSC Prelims 2027 because Geographical Indications (GI) remain an active area of current affairs and are frequently linked to India’s traditional products, exports, intellectual property rights, and local economies.

Explanation

— Sitting outdoors on a cot alongside the district collector and senior officials in Marwahi, Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Vishnu Deo Sai listened as villagers queued up to air their grievances. There were complaints about erratic electricity supply and pending road projects. Some sought lift irrigation schemes, colleges and community halls. Members of a women’s self-help group requested support for securing a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Vishnubhog, an organic rice variety grown in the region’s black soil.

— In India, the Geographical Indications of Goods Act of 1999 grants a Geographical Indication (GI) designation to items whose distinct quality or reputation is inextricably tied to their place of origin. The Geographical Indications Registry grants it to associations, producer groups, and government agencies rather than individuals. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The GI tag is good for ten years and can be renewed indefinitely for additional ten-year periods. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 31 – June 06)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 24 – May 30)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 17 – May 23)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 10 – May 16)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 03 – May 09)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 26 – May 02)

Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.

Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.