UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 26 – August 01): 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2027

2. The end-user applications were developed for utilising NavIC signals in the aviation sector only.

3. It was planned to be a four-satellite system to provide positioning data over the Indian subcontinent and 2500 km around it.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

NavIC has been in the news due to new satellite launches, technological upgrades, and expanding civilian applications. UPSC frequently tests Indian space missions, indigenous technologies, and their operational features, making NavIC an important topic for Prelims.

Explanation

— For the first time since positioning data from one of its satellites was lost in March, the government has accepted in the parliament that the seven-satellite navigation constellation (NavIC) can no longer independently aid people in navigation.

— Presently the NavIC constellation has three satellites for providing PNT (Positioning, Navigation, Timing) services — IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I and NVS-01. To provide basic positioning service, minimum four operational satellites are required in orbit. Hence, the NavIC constellation cannot provide standalone positioning service, however timing service is functional. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The armed forces continue to use NavIC signals as part of the multi-constellation GNSS — Global Navigation Satellite System that uses data from US’ GPS, EU’s Galileo, and Russia’s Glonass among others to navigate.

— While end-user applications were developed for utilising NavIC signals in aviation, shipping, railways, and even in everyday cell phones, all of these devices carry a GNSS receiver, meaning they can continue to get positioning data from other constellations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) — also referred to with the operational name of Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) — was planned to be a seven-satellite system to provide positioning data over the Indian subcontinent and 1500 km around it. Ever since its inception, however, it has been plagued by problems affecting its positioning data. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), consider the following statements:

1. The IIP maps changes in the volume of production in Indian industries.

2. It is released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

3. The IIP is compiled and released on a weekly basis.

4. The IIP is used to measure the inflation rate in the industrial sector.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC often tests candidates’ understanding of official economic indices, their purpose, frequency of release, and the institutions responsible for compiling them. This question is relevant because the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a key macroeconomic indicator frequently featured in economic news and government policy discussions.

Explanation

— The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation released the recently updated Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data. It showed that the IIP grew by 7.3% year-on-year (YoY) in June 2026. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The spike in June was the highest in 23 months, or almost two years. Moreover, it was not an isolated jump; the increase in June was the third consecutive month of accelerating YoY growth. This spike comes at a time when most observers suggest that India’s growth in the current year will slow down. As such, the IIP data presents a contrasting picture. However, a closer look at the data reveals more about the state of the Indian economy: the sectors that are pulling it up and those that are dragging it down.

— The IIP maps changes in the volume of production in Indian industries. It chooses a basket of industrial products — ranging from the manufacturing sector to mining to energy — to create an index by allocating different weights to each sector and then tracks their production every month. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— The IIP measures industrial production, not inflation. Inflation in the industrial sector is measured using indices such as the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), while retail inflation is measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI). Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Which of the following countries/regions receive higher rainfall due to the El Niño effect?

1. Peru

2. Parts of the Horn of Africa

3. Central Asia

4. Northern India

5. Parts of northern Mexico

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

El Niño remains a recurring current affairs topic due to its significant influence on global weather patterns, monsoon variability, agriculture, and disaster management. UPSC can test the regional climatic impacts of climate phenomena such as El Niño and La Niña by linking them with geography and current events.

Explanation

— The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) warned that the ongoing El Niño is set to further intensify and dominate the climate world over in the coming months. El Niño will particularly lead to above-normal temperatures across much of the world and drive significant shifts in rainfall patterns during August to October.

— El Niño provides above-normal rainfall to coastal Peru and Ecuador, causing floods. Countries such as Somalia, eastern Ethiopia, and Kenya frequently see increased rainfall, particularly during the October-December rainy season.

— El Niño typically causes wetter-than-normal conditions in Central Asia during the cold season.

— El Niño often causes a weaker southwest monsoon, resulting in below-average rainfall in India, particularly in the north.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Office Memorandum (OM), consider the following statements:

1. It is an administrative instruction issued by a ministry or department.

2. It has the force of law.

3. The Supreme Court can strike down an Office Memorandum.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Office Memoranda are frequently used by the executive to implement policies, making them important from the perspective of governance and administrative law.

Explanation

— The Supreme Court’s judgment on Wednesday (July 29) striking down the Centre’s 2021 Office Memorandum (OM) that allowed retrospective approval for projects that had already commenced construction without environment clearances (ECs), now closes the door on blanket and open-ended regularisation of such projects. It leaves limited room for government action under statutory authority. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The judgment has sought to strike a middle path in its evolving environmental jurisprudence, distinguishing between the source of executive power and the limits of regularisation.

— An OM is an administrative instruction issued by a ministry or department and does not have the force of law. A statutory notification, by contrast, is issued under authority granted by a statute — the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, in this case — and notified in the Gazette. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements about the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026:

1. It aims to strengthen the anti-paper leak law — The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024.

2. The Bill proposes to enhance the punishment for persons resorting to unfair means by increasing the term of imprisonment to not less than ten years.

3. It has a provision for the speedy trial through Special Fast Track Courts.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The issue of paper leaks and examination reforms has been a major governance concern, leading to legislative changes with direct implications for public administration. UPSC can test new laws, amendments, and their key provisions, particularly those related to governance, transparency, and institutional reforms.

Explanation

— The Centre tabled the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill in Lok Sabha to strengthen the anti-paper leak law — The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 — and increase the punishment for those involved in paper leaks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, seeks to further strengthen the provisions of the 2024 Act by providing for fast-tracked investigation, speedy trial through Special Fast Track Courts, appointment of Special Public Prosecutors, time-bound disposal of appeals and more stringent penal provisions to effectively deter unfair means and organised malpractices in public examinations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The proposed amendments have been brought in to reinforce the existing legal framework in view of incidents of question paper leakages and organised examination-related malpractices reported in recent years. They are aimed at ensuring greater accountability, strengthening deterrence against such offences and safeguarding the integrity of public examinations.

— The Bill proposes to enhance the punishment for persons resorting to unfair means by increasing the term of imprisonment to not less than five years, extendable up to 10 years, as against the existing provision of imprisonment for a term of not less than three years, extendable up to five years. The maximum fine is also proposed to be enhanced from ₹10 lakh to ₹50 lakh, the PIB note said. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Which of the following states/U.Ts are involved in the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Puducherry

6. Kerala

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3, and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Inter-State river water disputes remain a recurring current affairs topic, especially with renewed discussions on projects such as Mekedatu and water-sharing arrangements in the Cauvery basin. UPSC can test knowledge of river basin states, tribunals, constitutional provisions, and interstate water governance through map-based and conceptual questions.

Explanation

— Historically, Tamil Nadu used about 602 thousand million cubic feet (TMC) of the total yield of the Cauvery river. As a result, only about 138 TMC was available for Karnataka until the turn of the 20th century.

— In 1924, Tamil Nadu built the Mettur Dam, and the two states signed an agreement effective for 50 years. The pact allowed Tamil Nadu to expand its agricultural area by 11 lakh acres from the existing 16 lakh acres. Karnataka was authorised to increase its irrigation area from three lakh acres to 10 lakh acres.

— In 1974, when the accord lapsed, Karnataka claimed that the agreement restricted its ability to develop farming activities along the Cauvery basin. To make up for lost ground, it started building reservoirs. This led to a dispute between the two states.

— At the insistence of Tamil Nadu, the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) was formed in 1990 by the Union government.

(Source: Wikimedia Commons)

— The Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal involves Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Puducherry.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The government has approved continuation of the PM-KISAN Scheme for 2026-27 to 2030-31.

2. The impact of the PM-KISAN Scheme is assessed by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

3. The identification of farmer families is done by the Central Government.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The PM-KISAN Scheme has been in the news due to its extension and continued budgetary support, making it an important current affairs topic. UPSC can ask about flagship government schemes, focusing on their objectives, implementation mechanism, eligibility, and recent policy changes.

Explanation

— The Centre approved continuation of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Scheme for the next five years. A decision of this effect was taken during the Cabinet meeting chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The PM-KISAN will continue for the next five years from 2026-27 to 2030-31. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The scheme was launched on February 24, 2019. Through the PM-KISAN Scheme, timely and transparent income support is being provided to eligible farmer families through the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system, enabling farmers to increase agricultural investment and strengthen their livelihoods.

— The impact of the PM-KISAN Scheme has been assessed by various independent institutions. According to the evaluation conducted by the Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) of NITI Aayog: More than 92% of beneficiaries reported that they utilised the assistance amount for agricultural activities and agricultural investment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— PM Kisan is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India. Under the scheme an income support of 6,000/- per year in three equal installments will be provided to all land holding farmer families.

— State Government and UT administration identifies the farmer families which are eligible for support as per scheme guidelines. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: pmkisan.gov.in)

QUESTION 8

With reference to the Arctic Council, consider the following statements:

1. It was formally established in 1996.

2. Organisations representing Arctic Indigenous Peoples have status as Permanent Participants.

3. India has observer status in the Arctic Council.

4. There are six permanent members of the Arctic Council, which have territories within the Arctic.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

The Arctic is gaining strategic importance due to climate change, emerging shipping routes, and geopolitical competition, making the Arctic Council a recurring current affairs topic. UPSC can ask about international organisations, their membership, observer status, and institutional features, especially those involving India’s strategic interests.

Explanation

— The Parliamentary committee on External Affairs in its report has recommended that India should appoint a Polar Ambassador and urged the government to seek “full-fledged membership” of the Arctic Council so that India can engage in its activities more effectively.

— India is currently one of the 13 observer countries of the Arctic Council. The observer countries do not have decision-making powers. They can undertake research in the Arctic region. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The Arctic Council was formally established in 1996 through the Ottawa Declaration. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to the Ottawa Declaration, these states are Arctic Council Members. The eight states have territories in the Arctic and consequently serve as stewards of the region. The lands and waters surrounding the Arctic Ocean are governed by their respective jurisdictions as well as international law. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The Arctic Council distinguishes itself with the status of Permanent Participants. Six organisations representing Arctic Indigenous Peoples are Permanent Participants. This category was developed to allow Arctic Indigenous Peoples to actively participate in the Council’s activities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: arctic-council.org)

QUESTION 9

The Temporary General Network Access (T-GNA) is related to:

(a) National natural gas pipeline network

(b) Allocation for 5G telecom services

(c) Civilian aircraft during emergencies

(d) Power transmission

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can ask questions on new schemes, regulatory mechanisms, and sector-specific terminology from infrastructure and energy-related current affairs.

Explanation

— India’s rapidly expanding renewable energy sector is grappling with a major challenge: transmission constraints. Close to 21 gigawatts (GW), that is about 9% of the country’s installed renewable energy capacity, is currently transferred from plants through temporary grid connections while awaiting dedicated transmission infrastructure.

— Of this, around 12 GW faces restrictions on “power evacuation” during periods of peak solar generation, exposing developers to revenue losses and raising concerns over the financial viability of several projects. Power evacuation is the process of transferring electricity generated at a power plant to the consumption point.

— During the financial year 2025-26 (FY26), around 6,900 gigawatt-hour (GWh) of clean electricity faced restrictions due to a mismatch between the rapid pace of renewable energy deployment and commissioning of associated transmission infrastructure, latest government data shows.

— These projects operate under Temporary General Network Access (T-GNA), a stopgap arrangement for renewable energy plants awaiting commissioning of associated transmission infrastructure.

— Temporary General Network Access (T-GNA) in India is a short-term power transmission access mechanism, a digital processing system via the National Open Access Registry (NOAR), and a temporary solution for renewable energy plants awaiting permanent lines.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the India-Bhutan Development Cooperation Talks, consider the following statements:

1. Recently, a Line of Credit was signed between Bhutan and the Export-Import Bank of India for energy projects.

2. The fifth India-Bhutan Development Cooperation Talks focused on the implementation of projects under Bhutan’s 13th Five-Year Plan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

India–Bhutan development cooperation has been in the news due to the 5th Development Cooperation Talks and new initiatives in infrastructure and energy.

Explanation

— Twelve new projects worth Rs 332 crore were approved while a Line of Credit agreement worth Rs 4,000 crore was signed between Bhutan and the Export-Import Bank of India for energy projects, as Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri visited Thimphu to review the progress of development projects supported by Delhi, according to the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— During his two-day visit which concluded on Friday, Misri also called on King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck, Prime Minister Dasho Tshering Tobgay, and Minister for Foreign Affairs and External Trade Lyonpo D N Dhungyel.

— The fifth India-Bhutan Development Cooperation Talks, co-chaired by Misri and his Bhutanese counterpart Dasho Pema Lektup Dorji focussed on the implementation of projects under Bhutan’s 13th Five-Year Plan, as per the Indian Embassy in Bhutan. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The two sides discussed all aspects of bilateral cooperation including development partnership, energy, trade and investment, connectivity, people-to-people ties, as well as other regional issues of mutual importance, the MEA said in a statement.

— The two foreign secretaries also virtually inaugurated the Thimphu Ecological Park and the Olakha Park, developed under the Green Infrastructure and Open Spaces in Thimphu, funded by India as part of bilateral economic development.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 19 – July 25)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 12 – July 18)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 05 – July 11)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 28 – July 04)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 21 – June 27)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 14 – June 20)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 07 – June 13)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 31 – June 06)

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