UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 19 – July 25): 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2027

2. The Mahe class has been designed in accordance with the classification rules of Det Norske Veritas (DNV).

3. INS Malvan is the first of eight Mahe-class vessels.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because the Mahe-class Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) has been in the news following the commissioning of INS Malvan. It also tests UPSC’s recurring themes of defence technology and indigenous shipbuilding.

Explanation

— The Indian Navy commissioned the INS Malvan, its second Mahe-class Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC). On its crest is the ‘Bagh Nakha’ (Wagh Nakh), a tribute to the tiger-claw weapon associated with Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

— ASW-SWC is a specialised class of warships in India that is designed for anti-submarine and patrolling operations along the littoral zone — the shallow maritime zone near the shore that is strategically and economically critical. Other countries too deploy such littoral craft, but under different names. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The first ship in the class, INS Mahe, was commissioned in November last year. INS Malvan is the second of eight Mahe-class vessels being built by Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL), Kochi, and the sixth of 16 ASW-SWCs under construction by CSL and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The ship derives its name from the coastal town of Malvan in Maharashtra, a region synonymous with maritime vision and legacy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

— It also carries forward the role of an inshore minesweeper of the same name that was in service till 2003. INS Malvan’s crest bears the ‘Bagh Nakha’ (Wagh Nakh) — which means tiger’s claw. This is meant to symbolise courage, audacity and agility — in line with the with the ship’s role of attacking rapidly and silently.

— The ASW-SWC fleet significantly enhances the Indian Navy’s ability to secure its coastline against underwater threats. Designed for operations in shallow coastal waters, these vessels fill a long-standing capability gap by detecting and countering stealthy diesel-electric submarines that larger surface combatants cannot effectively pursue.

— The Mahe class has been designed and built by CSL in accordance with the classification rules of Det Norske Veritas (DNV), an internationally recognised classification society that certifies ships against stringent technical and safety standards. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the National Security Act (NSA), consider the following statements:

1. The NSA was passed by Parliament in 1980.

2. Under the Act, the National Chief Advisor can issue a detention order.

3. The Act does not allow detentions without criminal prosecution.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because the National Security Act (NSA), 1980 frequently comes into the news following instances of its invocation in matters related to public order, national security, and preventive detention. Such developments make the Act an important current affairs topic with constitutional and legal significance.

Explanation

— The Delhi Lieutenant Governor (L-G) has issued an order allowing the Commissioner of Police to exercise powers under the National Security Act (NSA) for three months, spanning July 19 to October 18.

— The NSA was passed by Parliament after Indira Gandhi returned to power in 1980, and notified in the official gazette. It was described as “an Act to provide for preventive detention in certain cases and for matters connected therewith”. The Act repealed the National Security Ordinance, 1980. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It has been widely criticised as “draconian” because of the powers of preventive detention that it grants the government. The detention under the NSA can extend up to 12 months, or even for longer if the government can produce more evidence against the detainee.

— Under the Act, a District Magistrate or Police Commissioner can issue a detention order, typically for up to 12 days unless otherwise approved by the state. Within three weeks, the detaining authority must place every order before an Advisory Board, comprising persons eligible to be High Court judges, with the Board required to submit its opinion within seven weeks of the date of detention. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— If no sufficient cause is found, the government must revoke the order. Otherwise, the government may issue a continuation or extension of such detention up to three months at a time, for a maximum of 12 months under a single order.

— The Act allows detentions without immediate criminal prosecution for a specified period, subject to safeguards laid down in the law. These include “acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State or…the maintenance of Public order or…the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community”. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the plastic banknotes, consider the following statements:

1. The cost of making one plastic note is less than that of a paper one.

2. China first introduced plastic notes in 1988.

3. Plastic notes are more secure than paper notes.

4. In India, the plastic notes were rolled out in 1966, but a year later, it was stopped.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There are three correct statements, that include statement 2.

(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because central banks are increasingly adopting polymer (plastic) banknotes worldwide to improve currency durability, security, and counterfeiting resistance.

Explanation

— Last week, a tender floated by a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) revealed the central bank’s intention to go ahead with a trial of plastic notes, some 15 years after a similar field trial was announced. But while the 2012 trial disappeared without a trace, there seems to be more momentum this time around. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Pvt Ltd’s (BRBNMPL) tender invited bids for 3.4 crore polymer sheets that are to be used to print currency notes.

— First issued by Australia in 1988, plastic banknotes are now used in more than 50 countries and are widely considered to be far superior to paper ones. Among developed countries, the likes of the UK, Canada, and New Zealand use polymer notes. And as Indian tourists would know, even our close neighbours such as Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia and Singapore use plastic currency, albeit not exclusively. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The biggest advantage plastic notes provide over paper notes is that they are far more durable, lasting anywhere between two to six times longer depending on the denomination of the note (small denomination notes are handled more frequently, which reduces their life). And this longer life is the source of nearly all the benefits.

— There is the security advantage. According to British firm De La Rue, which supplies notes to more than half of all central banks, plastic notes are more secure as most counterfeit notes are produced on paper. As such, counterfeit rates have fallen in countries where currency notes are made of polymer. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Printing fewer notes reduces costs related to making them — even though one plastic note is more expensive to make than a paper one — distributing them and destroying them. And the elimination of these costs has a favourable impact on the environment. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, paper leaks are treated as civil offences.

2. Persons accused in paper leak cases are automatically denied bail until the completion of the trial.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 has gained renewed attention amid recent incidents of examination paper leaks and the government’s efforts to ensure transparency and integrity in recruitment and entrance examinations.

Explanation

— The fast track courts, announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, to address the issue of exam paper leaks, have their task cut out. In a system where accountability for exam leaks has been dismal with most cases stuck in legal quicksand.

— An investigation by The Indian Express, published on June 5, found that of 45 major exam leaks between 2002 and 2025, each involving at least one lakh candidates or applicants, only two led to convictions.The biggest challenge, this newspaper found, is poor quality of investigation and the relatively lenient treatment of paper leaks as ordinary offences with no stringent bail conditions.

— According to investigators and officials, paper leaks are often treated under the law as ordinary offences. “Most cases were registered under IPC Sections such as 420 (cheating), 467 and 468 (forgery), and 120-B (criminal conspiracy) — all ordinary offences that carry no stringent bail conditions. Some states have brought in the Enforcement Directorate to invoke the money laundering law… UP has, on occasion, applied the Gangsters Act to attach properties and extend custody,” a senior official associated with a Central investigation told this newspaper.

— Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, paper leaks and other unfair means in public examinations are treated as criminal offences. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Act designates these offences as non-bailable; however, this does not indicate that bail is automatically denied. In non-bailable offences, the accused may still request bail, and the competent court has the authority to grant or deny bail based on the facts and circumstances of the case. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following countries shares a border with the Black Sea?

1. Bulgaria

2. Ukraine

3. Russia

4. Armenia

5. Moldova

6. Greece

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3, and 5 only

(c) 3, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 4 and 5 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because the Black Sea region has remained at the centre of global geopolitical developments, including the Russia–Ukraine conflict, maritime security, grain export routes, and NATO’s strategic engagement.

Explanation

— In response to Moscow indicating that a ship in Black Sea — in which four Indians were killed — was targeted for carrying military supplies for Ukraine, India said that the vessel was carrying “grain” as cargo.

Google Maps

— The Black Sea is bordered by six countries, which include Turkey, Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

The ‘Yellow Line’ was recently in the news. It refers to:

(a) The internationally recognised maritime boundary between Israel and Lebanon.

(b) The demarcation line separating the Gaza Strip from Egypt along the Rafah border.

(c) The UN-monitored buffer zone dividing the Israeli-occupied Golan Heights from Syria.

(d) It separates Israeli military-controlled territory in the east from Palestinian-controlled areas in the west.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can ask map-based and location-specific questions on conflict regions, strategic corridors, and military demarcation lines that feature in international current affairs.

Explanation

— Israel is constructing a massive earthen barrier across significant stretches of the Gaza Strip, AP has reported citing satellite images. The new structure — 23 km of which has already been constructed in recent months — will separate over 50% of the tiny enclave Israel controls from the rest of the territory, where the Palestinians still live.

— These giant earthen walls and raised berms (barriers) are fundamentally altering the physical geography of Gaza, effectively solidifying the 45-km Yellow Line that separates Israeli military-controlled territory in the east from Palestinian-controlled areas in the west. The barrier cuts through places that were once neighbourhoods, agricultural lands and transportation arteries but have now been flattened — preventing the return of the people pushed deeper inside the territory.

The location of the giant earthen barrier within Gaza. Source: AP

— For Israel, the main reason is security. It wants to reduce the proximity between military positions and population centres by creating cleared, fortified buffer zones. The barrier will also deepen the blockade it has imposed on the people of Gaza for years now. These barriers may also fit in with Israel’s goal of dividing the territory into isolated northern and southern enclaves to allow forces to regulate civilian movement.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the ‘Kusha’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Long-Range Air-to-Air Missile.

2. The Project Kusha has been developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation.

3. It has a range of around 500 km.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Project Kusha has been in the news due to progress in India’s indigenous long-range air defence capabilities and its role in strengthening national security. The topic is relevant to Defence Technology, Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence, and India’s evolving multi-layered air defence architecture.

Explanation

— In a major step towards the development of indigenous long-range air defence capabilities, the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the first flight test of the ‘Kusha’ Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM), at the APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— A long-range SAM typically has a range of over 200 km. India operates Russian S-400 Triumf, which is understood to be capable of hitting targets up to 400 km away. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The DRDO has been developing Project Kusha — an indigenous long-range SAM system — to protect strategic military and civilian assets and infrastructure from a range of aerial threats, including fighter jets, missiles, unmanned aerial vehicles and large enemy aircraft within a wide range and altitude envelope. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Last year, the DRDO successfully conducted maiden flight tests of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) — a multi-layered air defence system comprising all indigenous Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missiles (QRSAM), Advanced Very Short Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) missiles, and a high-power laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (DEW). Together, Kusha and the IADWS are understood to be major steps towards bringing India closer towards developing a home-grown nationwide security shield from multi-domain enemy attacks under Mission Sudarshan Chakra in the next 10 years.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the Chandipura virus (CHPV), consider the following statements:

1. It is a virus of the Rhabdoviridae family.

2. Aedes aegypti is considered a vector of CHPV.

3. The virus resides in the salivary glands of insects and cannot be transmitted to humans.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can ask map-based and location-specific questions on conflict regions, strategic corridors, and military demarcation lines that feature in international current affairs.

Explanation

— Two girls from Rajasthan have died while undergoing treatment in Gujarat in recent days after testing positive for the Chandipura virus (CHPV).

— CHPV is a virus of the Rhabdoviridae family, which also includes other members such as the lyssavirus that causes rabies. Several species of sandflies, like Phlebotomine sandflies and Phlebotomus papatasi, and some mosquito species, such as Aedes aegypti (which is also the vector for dengue), are considered vectors of CHPV. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— The virus resides in the salivary glands of these insects and can be transmitted to humans or other vertebrates, like domestic animals, through bites. The infection caused by the virus can then reach the central nervous system, which can lead to encephalitis — inflammation of the active tissues of the brain. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The CHPV infection presents initially with flu-like symptoms, such as acute onset of fever, body ache, and headache. It may then progress to altered sensorium or seizures and encephalitis. Retrospective studies from India have also reported other symptoms such as respiratory distress, bleeding tendencies, or anaemia.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Recently, the Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve was in the news. It is located in:

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Uttarakhand

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve has been in the news due to tiger conservation and translocation efforts, making it a potential current affairs-based Prelims topic. UPSC can ask location-based questions on tiger reserves, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves.

Explanation

— A team investigating the death of a leopard found snared in wires in the buffer zone of Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve has made a breakthrough, with officials suspecting a poaching case.

— Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve, located near Kota, is one of Rajasthan’s newest and least explored wildlife sites. Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve is part of the Aravalli Range’s diverse environment, consisting of dry deciduous forests, grasslands, and rocky terrain. The reserve was formed to support tiger protection and biodiversity, making it a crucial ecological zone for the state.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), homebuyers are treated as financial creditors and can participate in insolvency proceedings against developers.

2. Homebuyers can approach civil courts for the hearing of any dispute.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

UPSC can frame questions on statutory provisions, creditor classifications, adjudicatory bodies (NCLT/NCLAT), and recent amendments to important economic legislations. The topic also intersects with RERA, consumer protection, and corporate governance, making it a high-probability area for Prelims.

Explanation

— Warning Haryana-based real estate company Parsvnath Developers of jail if it failed to comply with the Haryana Real Estate Regulatory Authority (HRERA) orders directing payment to homebuyers, the Supreme Court on Monday (July 20) gave the company one final week to deposit the entire recoverable amount with 12% annual interest.

— The court last week ordered the freezing of bank accounts belonging to Parsvnath Developers Ltd and its sister company, Parsvnath Hessa Developers Pvt Ltd, and issued arrest warrants against senior company officials. The reason? The builder had ignored an order from the Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA), the regulator meant to protect homebuyers.

— For homebuyers, the problem is compounded by the fact that they cannot easily abandon the RERA route and start over elsewhere. The law does not let homebuyers sidestep RERA and approach a civil court for execution instead. Two sections of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, — also called the RERA Act — make sure of this. Section 79 bars ordinary civil courts from hearing any dispute that RERA empowers the Authority, adjudicating officer or Appellate Tribunal to decide. Section 89 gives RERA an overriding effect over other laws wherever its provisions conflict with them. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— So, many homebuyers also explore remedies under the Consumer Protection Act and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Under the IBC, homebuyers are treated as financial creditors and can participate in insolvency proceedings against developers. Consumer forums have stronger powers to deal with non-compliance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 12 – July 18)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 05 – July 11)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 28 – July 04)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 21 – June 27)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 14 – June 20)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 07 – June 13)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (May 31 – June 06)

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