UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 25 to January 31, 2026

2. The sects of Sri Vaishnavas follow the philosopher Ramanuja.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is Prelims-oriented and fits perfectly into UPSC Prelims 2026. The question tests core Art & Culture basics.

Explanation

— This religious quarrel in Tamil Nadu is not about the spiritual, but the temporal — who stands in the front rows, who chants first, whose voice fills the stone hall before the deity at dawn.

— Inside the granite corridors of Sri Devarajaswamy Temple in Kanchipuram, these questions have shaped more than a century of litigation, defined ritual hierarchy and now drawn the attention of the Supreme Court, which this week appointed the former Supreme Court judge, Justice (retired) Sanjay Kishan Kaul, as a mediator to attempt an amicable settlement.

— The dispute is between two sects of Sri Vaishnavas — the Thenkalai (Southern tradition) and the Vadakalai (Northern tradition). Both are from the Iyengar community. Both follow the philosopher Ramanuja. Both worship the same deity. Yet each invokes a different spiritual lineage and seeks the right to recite its own mantras during ceremonial worship. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following pairs:

1. Padma Shri – distinguished service of high order

2. Padma Vibhushan – exceptional and distinguished service

3. Padma Bhushan – distinguished service in any field

How many of the pairs given above are correctly marked?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC increasingly tests constitutional awards, civilian honours, and institutional recognition mechanisms to assess a candidate’s understanding of state-led incentive structures and value systems, rather than rote memorisation of award lists.

Explanation

— The Centre has released the list of winners of the Padma Award this year. One of the highest civilian Awards of the country, the lists of its winners are announced every year on the eve of Republic Day.

— The Awards are given in various disciplines, ranging from art and social work to public affairs, science, engineering, sports, and civil service.

— ‘Padma Vibhushan’ is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service. ‘Padma Bhushan’ for distinguished service of high order and ‘Padma Shri’ for distinguished service in any field. Hence, pair 2 is correct and pairs 1 and 3 are not correctly marked.

— The highest number of winners this year are from Maharashtra (15), followed by Tamil Nadu (13), Uttar Pradesh (11), West Bengal (11), and Kerala (8).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Remount and Veterinary Corps (RVC), consider the following statements:

1. It is a specialised Corps of the Indian Army responsible for the breeding, rearing, and training of Army animals.

2. One of the major contributions of the RVC is providing logistics and operational support, especially in difficult and high-altitude terrains.

3. For the first time in the Republic Day Parade on January 26, 2026, the RVC presented a specially curated animal contingent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC focuses on institutional capability mapping within the armed forces, moving beyond combat platforms to include support corps that enhance operational effectiveness in diverse terrains. A question on the Remount and Veterinary Corps (RVC) reflects this shift towards testing awareness of force multipliers, logistics–operations integration, and niche military capabilities such as animal-based mobility, medical support, and sustainment in high-altitude and inhospitable regions.

Explanation

— At the annual Republic Day parades, the Indian Army’s Remount and Veterinary Corps (RVC) are generally represented by the dog squad. This year, in a first, other animals will also be part of the parade. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The RVC is a specialised Corps of the Indian Army responsible for the breeding, rearing, and training of Army animals, including horses, mules and Army dogs. It ensures the operational readiness of these animals for combat, reconnaissance, and logistics, particularly in high-altitude and difficult terrain, while also providing veterinary care and supporting counter-terrorism operations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The RVC is one of the oldest branches of the Indian Army, tracing its foundation to the Stud Department established in Bengal in 1779. After periodic reorganisations — from Army Veterinary Corps (India) in 1920 to Indian Remount and Veterinary Corps in 1950 — it was formally established as the Remount and Veterinary Corps in 1960. The Corps motto is ‘Pashu Seva Asmakam Dharma (Service to animals is our duty)’.

— The RVC has played a vital role in all conflicts before and after Independence, including the First and Second World Wars. In 1989, the Corps, headquartered in Meerut, was awarded the President’s Flag for its meritorious service.

— The RVC’s contribution to logistics is crucial. Mules continue to be a reliable and cost-effective means of transporting essential military supplies in difficult and high-altitude areas, where vehicles or aircraft cannot reach. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Apart from military duties, the RVC is also involved in strengthening military diplomacy by providing horse riding training under the NCC, veterinary assistance in remote areas, participation in United Nations missions and providing trained animals to friendly countries.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Kokborok language, consider the following statements:

1. It is one of the oldest and most widely spoken languages among the indigenous communities of Mizoram.

2. It cannot be written with the Devanagari script correctly.

3. It was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution in 1992.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is steadily expanding its focus on India’s linguistic diversity and constitutional recognition of languages, especially those linked to the North-East and indigenous communities, which remain under-represented yet strategically and culturally significant. The framing deliberately mixes language–state association, script usage debates, and Eighth Schedule provisions, compelling candidates to read statements with care and avoid assumptions based on familiarity or guesswork.

Explanation

— Octogenarian Kokborok scholar, author and grammarian Naresh Chandra Debbarma, who has spent more than five decades documenting Tripura’s tribal language, has been awarded the Padma Shri this year for his contribution to education and Kokborok literature.

— Kokborok was recognised as an official language of Tripura in 1979. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Kokborok can be written in Devanagari, while there has been debate over the use of Roman, Bengali, and Devanagari scripts. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Kokborok is not included in the Eighth Schedule (1992 additions were Manipuri, Konkani, and Nepali). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Eco-sensitive zones (ESZs), consider the following statements:

1. These are areas surrounding protected areas.

2. They are notified by the Ministry of Rural Development.

3. The concept of Eco Sensitive Zone was adopted during the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC’s focus on environmental governance through regulatory nuance rather than headline conservation terms has increased. Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) sit at the intersection of environmental law, federal administration, infrastructure development, and judicial intervention, making them a high-yield prelims topic.

Explanation

— The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has proposed a major regulatory reset to fast-track the expansion of hydro pumped-storage projects (PSPs). In its latest roadmap, the CEA has recommended allowing hydro PSPs within eco-sensitive zones (ESZs) and up to a 10-km aerial distance from protected areas where ESZs have not been formally notified.

— The recommendations come amid environmental concerns and local protests against PSPs in states such as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Maharashtra’s Western Ghats, where communities and activists have flagged potential risks to forests, fragile ecosystems and endangered wildlife.

— Eco-sensitive zones are areas surrounding protected areas, notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, to protect environmentally fragile ecosystems. At present, PSPs and hydropower projects are prohibited within ESZs as well as the default 10-km buffer around protected areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The concept of Eco Sensitive Zone was conceived during the XXI meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife held on 21st January, 2002, when the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002 was adopted. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The National Environment Policy (2006) defined the Eco-Sensitive Zones “as areas/zones with identified environmental resources having incomparable values which require special attention for their conservation” because of its landscape, wildlife, biodiversity, historical and natural values.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: moef.gov.in)

QUESTION 6

With reference to the latest inclusion of Ramsar sites in India, consider the following pairs:

1. Chhari-Dhand – Rajasthan

2. Patna Bird Sanctuary – Bihar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is increasingly using wetlands and Ramsar sites to test a candidate’s ability to track environment–federal geography linkages rather than merely count protected sites. Recent additions to the Ramsar list bring lesser-known wetlands into focus, especially those whose names can mislead geographical intuition. This aligns with UPSC’s trend of assessing map-based accuracy, administrative boundaries, and precision in environmental governance.

Explanation

— Ahead of World Wetlands Day on February 2, Patna Bird Sanctuary in Etah district of Uttar Pradesh and Chhari-Dhand in Kutch district of Gujarat have been included as wetlands of international importance in Ramsar sites list, under the global Ramsar convention.

— This takes India’s Ramsar network to 98 sites. “The international recognition reflects India’s strong commitment to protecting the environment and conserving its wetlands,” Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav said on X.

— India became a signatory to the convention in 1982.

— Chhari-Dhand is a seasonal saline wetland located between the famous Banni grasslands and salt flats of Kutch, as per a note issued by the Ramsar Convention secretariat. It is an important wintering site for waterfowl, supporting species such as critically endangered sociable lapwing, the vulnerable common pochard, and, notably, approximately 30,000 common cranes (Grus grus) annually.

— The Patna bird sanctuary wetland consists of freshwater marshes, woodlands and grasslands, and is surrounded by agricultural landscapes. It is particularly important in supporting waterbird populations and has been designated an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) by BirdLife International.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to renewable energy in India, consider the following statements:

1. India has almost half of the electricity generated as renewable energy as of November 2025.

2. India ranks first globally in overall renewable capacity and solar installations.

3. Over the past decade, India’s renewable capacity has more than tripled.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC focuses on data literacy and precision in economic–energy indicators, especially where public discourse tends to blur key distinctions. Renewable energy is a flagship policy area, frequently cited in government targets and media reports, but UPSC uses it to check whether candidates can differentiate between installed capacity and actual electricity generation, a recurring source of confusion.

Explanation

— Energy storage will be central to enable reliable, large-scale adoption of renewables to support India’s transition to a clean, secure, and resilient power system, the Economic Survey 2025–26 underlined. Large-scale integration of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) and Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSP) are crucial to managing the variability of renewable energy, stabilising the grid, and meeting peak demand, it said.

— India’s energy landscape, the survey noted, is undergoing a structural transformation, with renewable energy accounting for 49.83% of total installed power capacity as of November 2025.

— Note: According to published official data, renewable installed capacity from non-fossil sources reached approximately 49.8% by November 2025 – but this relates to capacity rather than actual electricity generated by renewables. The installed capacity percentage is not the same as the electricity generated percentage. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The country ranks third globally in overall renewable capacity and solar installations, and fourth in wind capacity. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Over the past decade, India’s renewable capacity has more than tripled, rising from 76.38 GW in March 2014 to 253.96 GW by November 2025. The Survey attributed this growth to supportive national renewable energy policies, large-scale project execution, and strong private sector participation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the bronze sculptures in news, consider the following pairs:

1. Shiva Nataraja – Chola period

2. Somaskanda – Gupta period

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC increasingly tests art-history through a combination of iconography, dynasty, and period-specific bronze sculptures, rather than just memorizing famous monuments. UPSC examines whether candidates can link a specific iconographic form to its originating or canonical dynasty, distinguishing between origin and later popularity.

Explanation

— The Smithsonian’s National Museum of Asian Art announced its plans to return three sculptures to India, following what it calls “rigorous provenance research that documented that the sculptures had been removed illegally from temple settings”.

— These bronze sculptures include ‘Shiva Nataraja’ (Chola period, 10th century), ‘Somaskanda’ (Chola period, 12th century), and ‘Saint Sundarar with Paravai’ (Vijayanagar period, 16th century). These were among some of the sacred idols carried in temple processions.

(Image: National Museum of Asian Art, Smithsonian Institution, Freer Collection)

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Consider the following statements about the Nipah virus:

1. It is a lethal avian virus that is primarily transmitted from birds to humans.

2. The infection can cause severe complications such as encephalitis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC increasingly tests candidates on emerging infectious diseases and zoonotic outbreaks, linking them to public health, epidemiology, and biosecurity rather than only historical pandemics.

Explanation

— Nipah is a rare but highly lethal zoonotic virus that is primarily transmitted from fruit bats to humans, with limited human-to-human transmission. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The infection can cause severe complications such as encephalitis, with fatality rates ranging between 45-75 per cent in reported outbreaks. Experts say that while Nipah outbreaks occur almost annually in Bangladesh, there is no evidence that the virus is evolving into a highly transmissible human pathogen. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Nipah mainly affects animals such as bats, pigs, dogs and horses, but can infect humans who come into contact with infected animals or consume food contaminated by their bodily fluids. Transmission has been linked to fruits or date palm sap contaminated by bats.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: A significant share of PM₂.₅ concentrations in some of the major Indian cities arises from transboundary and inter-regional transport.

Statement 2: During winter months, north-westerly winds can carry particulate pollution from Pakistan’s Punjab into north-western India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question tests a combination of environmental science, geography, and analytical reasoning, which reflects UPSC’s current trends. UPSC is moving beyond just local pollution sources to examine regional, transboundary, and seasonal dynamics of air quality. Understanding PM₂.₅ transport patterns is crucial for grasping national air quality challenges.

Explanation

— Recently, the World Bank came out with a report titled ‘A Breath of Change: Solutions for Cleaner Air in the Indo-Gangetic Plains and Himalayan Foothills’, which underlines the need for transboundary cooperation in tackling air pollution.

— The region functions as a single transboundary airshed, where pollutants are transported across administrative and national boundaries by prevailing winds and atmospheric circulation. Commonly, an airshed is an area with a distinct air mass such that emissions emanating in the region majorly remain within its boundaries.

— The World Bank report notes that during winter months, north-westerly winds can carry particulate pollution from Pakistan’s Punjab into north-western India, accounting for upto 30% of air pollution in the Indian Punjab and adding to background levels in Haryana and the Delhi-NCR. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— A recent modelling study led by IIT Bombay shows that a significant share of PM₂.₅ concentrations in major Indian cities arises from transboundary and inter-regional transport, with emissions from upwind states and neighbouring countries measurably contributing to local loads. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

What is ‘Kattumaran’?

(a) Carnatic music

(b) Kerala’s ancient culinary heritage

(c) Traditional Artwork of Tamil Nadu

(d) None of the above

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Some terms do not appear in the current affairs headlines but are associated with a popular term in news. Instead of asking a direct question from the current affairs subject, UPSC may quiz you by connecting the dots.

Explanation

— The commissioning of the stitched sailing vessel INSV Kaundinya and its maiden voyage from Porbandar to Muscat, completed on January 14 after an arduous 18-day journey, is significant for more than one reason.

— At one level, the voyage revives India’s ancient shipbuilding traditions and maritime imagination. The construction of Kaundinya itself is a tribute to indigenous knowledge systems that once powered Indian Ocean trade. A team of naval architects, archaeologists, master craftsmen and shipwrights spent nearly two years recreating the ancient technique of stitching planks together without nails or metal fastenings.

— Such vessels, flexible yet sturdy, were capable of withstanding the turbulence of open seas. So well-known was India for its shipbuilding prowess that one kind of ship built in India named the ‘Kattumaran’ in Tamil was inducted in the English lexicon as the ‘catamaran’. Appropriately, the naming of the ship after the eponymous Indian sailor ‘Kaundinya’ — believed to have founded the first kingdom in ancient Cambodia — recalls the fascinating history of India’s maritime relations.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

‘Usta Art’ is associated with which Indian state?

(a) Gujrat

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Sikkim

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This could have featured as a question in the Art and Culture section of a static quiz, making it a difficult one, especially for those who have not visited the state it belongs to. However, the art came into the news due to the Republic Day tableau on Kartavya Path. Go through the key features of this year’s Republic Day celebrations, as they can turn out to be easy scorers in the upcoming Prelims.

Explanation

— The Rajasthan tableau at the 77th Republic Day parade on January 26, 2026, showcased the state’s rich cultural heritage with the theme “Golden Touch of the Desert: Bikaner Gold Art (Usta Art)”. Usta Art is a traditional craft from Bikaner, Rajasthan, is renowned for its intricate embossing techniques and luxurious gold foil application.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to V2V or vehicle-to-vehicle wireless technology, recently seen in news, consider the following statements:

1. Its primary aim is to reduce air and sound pollution caused due to vehicles.

2. It is different from V2X which primarily aims at reducing road accidents and fatalities.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Any technology in the news, especially one aimed at solving everyday problems, is a must read, more so if it is being adopted by the Government of India. There is no need to go into scientific depth, but aspirants should be aware of the key takeaways and similar technologies within the subject. Remember, India ranks first in the world in total road accident fatalities, far ahead of other countries. China accounts for only 36 percent and the United States for 25 percent of India’s road deaths. This makes the topic too important to miss.

Explanation

— The government is planning to launch Vehicle-to-Vehicle (V2V) safety technology to prevent road accident deaths and reduce traffic. In a meeting of the parliamentary consultative committee on January 22 in New Delhi, the Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways, Nitin Gadkari, said that the Department of Telecommunications has allocated 30 GHz radio frequency for the development of vehicle-to-vehicle communication systems, which will help reduce road accidents and fatalities.

— V2V or vehicle-to-vehicle communication is a wireless technology that will enable the vehicles to communicate or talk with one another to share real-time information like speed, location, acceleration, braking, etc. It is the sub-category of Vehicle-to-Everything (V2X) and comes under the umbrella of the Intelligent Transport System.

— The system is similar to the aviation sector technology, where aircraft broadcast their position, speed, altitude, and the nearby aircraft and ground stations receive it. While this system is fortified in the aviation sector across the world, the road sector is still evolving, and V2V is working in a few countries, mostly developed nations.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

With reference to polar vortex, recently seen in news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a large area of low-pressure and cold air that swirls like a wheel around both of the Earth’s polar regions.

2. Unlike the stratospheric polar vortex, the tropospheric polar vortex disappears during the summer and is the strongest during the autumn.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Geographical phenomena are clearly mentioned in the syllabus, but some specific types may not be covered in detail in textbooks. They become important for the Prelims when they appear in the headlines. The easiest questions framed around such phenomena are definitional in nature. If they have types, specific causes, or consequences, aspirants should make a note of them.

Explanation

— A powerful winter storm triggered heavy snow, sleet and freezing rain from the Ohio Valley and mid-South to New England in the United States on Sunday (January 26), leaving at least seven people dead. The storm has been fueled by the activity of the polar vortex, which has expanded southwards.

— The polar vortex is a large area of low-pressure and cold air that swirls like a wheel around both of the Earth’s polar regions. There are two types of polar vortex: tropospheric and stratospheric.

— The tropospheric polar vortex occurs at the lowest layer of the atmosphere — it extends from the surface up to about 10 km to 15 km — where most weather phenomena occur.

— The stratospheric polar vortex occurs at around 15 km to 50 km high. Unlike the tropospheric polar vortex, the stratospheric polar vortex disappears during the summer and is the strongest during the autumn.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Consider the following statements:

1. The term “free education” in the RTE Act is not limited to waiving tuition fees.

2. The RTE Act mandates schools to maintain specific norms and standards, including separate toilets for boys and girls, hence it is not limited to infrastructural facilities.

3. Menstrual hygiene is a fundamental right under Article 14 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Major Supreme Court judgments form important policy questions for the Prelims because UPSC tests aspirants on the static aspects of current affairs rather than asking directly why an issue is in the news. Therefore, aspirants are advised to link every such judgment with the relevant Acts, constitutional provisions, or background information that forms the genesis of the news.

Explanation

— Prefacing their judgment with this quote from American educator Melissa Berton, a Supreme Court bench of Justices J B Pardiwala and R Mahadevan, on Friday, delivered a landmark verdict recognising the access to menstrual hygiene as not just a health issue but as a constitutional right.

— The court’s reasoning is anchored in the concept of “substantive equality”. While Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before the law, the court noted that treating everyone exactly the same may perpetuate inequality.

— The judgment notes that “equal consideration for all may demand very unequal treatment in favour of the disadvantaged.” In the context of schools, it said that if a girl child cannot attend classes because she lacks menstrual absorbents or a toilet, she is not on an equal footing with her male counterparts.

— “The absence of menstrual hygiene measures entrenches gendered disadvantage by converting a biological reality into a structural exclusion,” it observed.

— The judgment went on to place menstrual health within the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution. It held that the right to life includes the right to live with dignity.

— The court then provides an interpretation of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act) through the lens of menstrual health.

— It held that the term “free education” in Section 3 of the RTE Act is not limited to waiving tuition fees – it implies the removal of any financial barrier that prevents a child from completing their education.

— “When this expenditure [on sanitary products] leads to absenteeism or drop-out, the State’s inaction converts a guaranteed right into a conditional one,” the judgment states. Therefore, providing free sanitary napkins is a statutory obligation to ensure education is truly “free”, reasoned the court.

— It then points out that Section 19 of the RTE Act mandates schools to maintain specific norms and standards, including separate toilets for boys and girls. The court clarifies that this is not merely an infrastructural requirement but a substantive one.

— “The requirement for ‘barrier-free access’ must be understood in a substantive sense… the absence of sanitary napkins and a hygienic mechanism to dispose it results in absenteeism, or drop-out of girls from school,” the court said, terming the lack of such facilities a “stark constitutional failure”.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 18 to January 24, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 11 to January 17, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 04 to January 10, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 28, 2025 to January 03, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 21 to December 27, 2025

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