UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 19 to January 25, 2025

3. The ramjet efficiency increases once the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds – above Mach 5.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) demonstrated the scramjet combustor ground test for 120 seconds for the first time in India. The Ministry of Defence (MoD) has called it a crucial milestone in developing next-generation hypersonic missiles.

— Hypersonic missiles are a class of advanced weaponry that travel at speeds greater than ‘Mach 5’ – five times the speed of sound.

What are ramjets engines?

— Ramjets are air-breathing jet engines that use the vehicle’s forward motion to compress inflowing air for combustion instead of a rotating compressor. The fuel is injected into the combustion chamber, where it reacts with the hot compressed air to ignite. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— A ramjet-powered vehicle requires an aided take-off, such as a rocket assist, to accelerate to a speed at which it can produce thrust.

— Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3, three times the speed of sound. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— However, the ramjet efficiency reduces once the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds – above Mach 5. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— This is where the Supersonic Combustion Ramjet or Scramjet engine comes in. It efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion.

What are scramjet engines?

— The basic difference with a scramjet is that the air does not slow down in the combustion chamber and remains supersonic throughout the engine. This significantly complicates the design, development, and operation of the scramjet.

— The scramjet combustor employs a novel flame stabilisation mechanism that maintains a continuous flame inside the combustor at air speeds of more than 1.5 kilometres per second. Before settling on the Scramjet Engine configuration, DRDO scientists tested a variety of unique and promising ignition and flame-holding techniques on ground.

— According to the MoD, the scramjet combustor’s ground test revealed numerous remarkable breakthroughs, proving its potential for operational employment in hypersonic vehicles, such as effective ignition and stable combustion.

— Another significant milestone in the development of hypersonic technologies is the creation of Thermal Barrier Coating (TBC), which is intended to survive the severe temperatures encountered during hypersonic flight. DRDL and the Department of Science and Technology (DST) collaborated to create a new advanced ceramic TBC with excellent thermal resistance and the ability to operate beyond steel’s melting point.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following were the objectives of the Beti Padhao, Beti Bachao program?

1. Improving the Sex Ratio at Birth

2. To reduce gender differentials in under-five child mortality

3. Empowerment of the girl child.

4. To increase the enrollment of girls in secondary education

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Exactly a decade ago, on January 22, 2015, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) program to arrest the decline in the child sex ratio.

— Originally intended for 100 districts, it was expanded to 61 additional districts in 2015-16 and eventually to all 640 districts in the country.

— Its goals included eliminating gender-biased sex selection and supporting the survival, education, and empowerment of female children. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— It established many targets for girls’ nutritional status, school attendance, and the provision of adequate school facilities, among other things. This was to be accomplished by public awareness programs, inspections, and raids to prevent unlawful pregnancy detection at clinics, among other methods.

— The primary goal was to improve the Sex Ratio at Birth (the ratio of male to female births) in designated important districts by two points every year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The second goal was to minimise gender disparities in under-five child mortality (the likelihood of a newborn dying before reaching five years of age, expressed per 1,000 live births). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The third aim was to boost institutional deliveries by at least 1.5% per year. Data from the National Family Health Surveys reveal that the share of institutional deliveries has risen over time.

— When BBBP was introduced, hospitals and community health centres accounted for 78.9 percent of all births (NFHS-4 statistics for 2015-16). In 2019-21, this figure has risen by 9.7 percentage points to 88.6% (NFHS-5). Almost all states reported an increase in institutional deliveries.

— The BBBP also proposed a minimum 1% annual increase in the first trimester antenatal check (ANC). This is crucial for reducing maternal mortality rates. In 2015-16, just 58.6 percent of moms received a prenatal checkup in the first trimester (NFHS-4). However, since then, this figure has risen countrywide.

— The BBBP aimed to boost girls’ secondary education enrolment to 82% by 2018-19. In 2014-15, the figure stood at 75.5%. The scheme failed to meet its aim, with an enrolment ratio of 76.9 percent in 2018-19. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), consider the following statements:

1. The IWT was signed by India and Pakistan in 1960 to determine the distribution of the waters of the Indus and its tributaries.

2. It was signed in Delhi by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and then Pakistan President Ayub Khan.

3. Under the IWT, India enjoys “unrestricted use” of the three “Western Rivers” Indus, Chenab, and Jhelum.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The World Bank’s Neutral Expert, appointed under the terms of the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), has determined that he is “competent” to adjudicate on the differences between India and Pakistan regarding the design of two hydroelectric projects in Jammu and Kashmir, reaffirming New Delhi’s long-held position.

— “The decision upholds and vindicates India’s stand that all the seven questions that were referred to the Neutral Expert, in relation to the Kishenganga and the Ratle hydroelectric projects, are differences falling within his competence under the Treaty,” according to the ministry’s statement.

What is the Indus Water Treaty?

— On September 19, 1960, India and Pakistan signed the International Water Treaty to define the allocation of the Indus and its tributaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It was signed in Karachi by then-Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistan President Ayub Khan following nine years of World Bank-arranged discussions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Under the IWT, India has “unrestricted use” of the three “Eastern Rivers” (Beas, Ravi, and Sutlej), whereas Pakistan controls the three “Western Rivers” (Indus, Chenab, and Jhelum). This effectively gives India around 30% of the water carried by the Indus River System, while Pakistan receives 70%. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— According to Article III (1) of the Treaty, “India is under obligation to let flow” waters from the Western Rivers into Pakistan.

Ongoing dispute

— Pakistan objects to the design elements of two hydroelectric projects currently under development in Jammu and Kashmir: the Kishenganga HEP on the Kishenganga, a tributary of the Jhelum, and the Ratle HEP on the Chenab. Although they are “run-of-the-river” facilities that generate energy without impeding the river’s natural flow, Pakistan has frequently claimed that they violate the IWT.

— In 2015, Pakistan requested the appointment of a Neutral Expert to investigate its technical concerns about the projects. However, a year later, it unilaterally rescinded the request, instead proposing adjudication by the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA).

— India made a supplementary request that the subject be referred to a Neutral Expert. It declined to engage with the PCA system, claiming it violates the IWT.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the enemy property, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to the assets which are only immovable left behind in India by individuals who migrated to countries designated as “enemy nations” during times of conflict.

2. Under the Enemy Property Act, 1968, properties that are declared as enemy assets remain permanently vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property, with no room for inheritance or transfer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Madhya Pradesh High Court has asked actor Saif Ali Khan to approach the appellate authority against an order of the central government that declared historical properties of the Pataudi family in Bhopal, estimated to be worth Rs 15,000 crore, as “enemy property”.

— Nawab Hamidullah Khan became the ruler of the princely state of Bhopal in 1947. He had three daughters, the eldest of which, Abida Sultan, moved to Pakistan in 1950.

— Sajida Sultan, the second daughter, remained in India and married Nawab Iftikhar Ali Khan Pataudi, who played cricket for both England and India, and whose son was the famed Mansoor Ali Khan ‘Tiger’ Pataudi.

— Saif Ali Khan, Sajida’s grandson and Tiger Pataudi’s son, inherited a share of the Bhopal assets. However, Abida Sultan’s migration became the focal point of the government’s claim to the properties as “enemy property”.

What is enemy property?

— Enemy property refers to the assets, both movable and immovable, left behind in India by individuals who migrated to countries designated as “enemy nations” during times of conflict. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Following the wars between India and Pakistan in 1965 and 1971, and the Sino-Indian War in 1962, the Indian government assumed control of properties and businesses owned by those who adopted the nationality of Pakistan or China.

— These properties were assigned to the Custodian of Enemy Property for India under the Defence of India Rules, which were enacted in response to the Defence of India Act of 1962. The custodian is responsible for administering these assets on behalf of the Indian government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— According to the Enemy Property Act of 1968, properties declared as enemy assets stay permanently vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property, with no room for succession or transfer.

— The law establishes a legal framework for the central government to administer and maintain control over enemy properties across many states.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

“Stargate” was in the news recently. It refers to:

(a) AI infrastructure in the US

(b) A spherical shell around our solar system

(c) AI-enabled precision spraying technology for farming

(d) A portal for research and therapies for heart failure

Explanation

— Soon after being sworn as President of the United States, Donald Trump made a major revelation that could affect the future of artificial intelligence.

— He said that $500 billion would be spent in AI infrastructure in the United States through Project Stargate, which will create over 100,000 employment immediately.

— Stargate is a $500 billion effort aimed at developing an artificial intelligence infrastructure in the United States over the next four years. Trump stated $100 million would be invested straight away. This is a large-scale effort aimed at propelling the United States to the forefront of AI breakthroughs worldwide.

— “This huge project represents a significant vote of confidence in America’s future and leadership under this administration. “This project ensures that the United States remains the global leader in AI and technology, rather than allowing competitors like China to gain an advantage,” Trump said when unveiling the project.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer

QUESTION 6

With reference to the NVS-02, consider the following statements:

1. It is a navigation satellite on-board GSLV-F15 from Sriharikota.

2. It will be the 100th launch by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

3. It has a lifespan of 12 years and is equipped with indigenously developed, more accurate atomic clocks.

4. It will utilise L1 frequency which is most commonly used in the US Global Positioning System (GPS).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) plans to launch a 2,250-kg navigation satellite on GSLV-F15 from Sriharikota on January 29 at 06.23 a.m., marking its 100th launch. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— The NVS-02 is the second of five second-generation satellites designed by the space agency to replace the current satellites in the country’s navigation constellation, the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System.

— The new series of satellites has a 12-year lifespan and includes indigenously built, more accurate atomic clocks. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The new generation of satellites also uses L1 frequency, which is most extensively used in the United States Global Positioning System (GPS), and this is anticipated to lead to increased adoption by smaller devices such as fitness trackers. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— The launch on January 29 will mark the 17th flight of the GSLV vehicle, with the 11th employing an indigenous cryogenic engine.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Recently, Sivagalai, Adichanallur, Mayiladumparai, and Kilnamandi were in the news. These sites are associated with:

(a) Iron Age in India

(b) Sea ports

(c) Chola temple sites

(d) Paleolithic archaeological sites

Explanation

— In an announcement that challenges long-held assumptions about the origins of the Iron Age, a recent study discovered evidence indicating the usage of iron in what is now Tamil Nadu dates back to the first quarter of the fourth millennium BC.

— This discovery, based on rigorous radiometric dating from various worldwide laboratories, establishes the location as a pioneering centre of early metallurgy, outlasting global timeframes by approximately two millennia.

— K Rajan and R Sivanantham published a report titled ‘Antiquity of Iron: Recent Radiometric Dates from Tamil Nadu’ that detailed their findings.

— The findings, which show that iron technology in Tamil Nadu dates back to 3345 BCE, are supported by Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) and Optically Stimulated Luminescence (OSL) analyses of samples from archaeological sites including Sivagalai, Adichanallur, Mayiladumparai, and Kilnamandi.

— Until recently, the Iron Age in India was thought to have begun between 1500 and 2000 BCE, shortly after the Indus Valley Civilisation. However, new data from Tamil Nadu shifts this period even further back. A paddy sample from a burial urn at Sivagalai was dated to 1155 BCE, while charcoal and potsherds (broken fragments of ceramic material) from the same site yielded dates ranging from 2953 BCE to 3345 BCE, making it the earliest recorded evidence of iron technology in the world.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS), consider the following statements:

1. It is a rare neurological disorder wherein the body’s immune system tends to attack the peripheral nerves.

2. It is triggered by infections like respiratory or gastrointestinal illnesses.

3. It is characterised by the sudden onslaught of weakness in the hands or legs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Pune has recorded more than 50 suspected instances of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). According to the Pune Municipal Corporation, the patients, both children and adults, complained of symptoms associated with contaminated food and drink, including diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort.

— Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) is an uncommon neurological ailment in which the immune system attacks peripheral nerves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It is induced by infections such as respiratory or gastrointestinal illnesses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— “Patients with this disorder may experience weakness, tingling in their limbs, and, in severe cases, paralysis,” said Dr. Pankaj Agarwal, chairman of the department of neurology at Gleneagles Hospital Parel Mumbai.

— It is a “neurological emergency” disorder that causes sudden paralysis in the hands or legs, as well as trouble with eye movements, swallowing, and speaking. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— It affects the immune system by destroying our nerves rather than the virus or germs. This is due to the molecular mimicry mechanism. As a result, the nerves weaken and fail to operate.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

Operation Gibraltar is a military operation during:

(a) India-Pakistan war 1947

(b) India-China war 1962

(c) India-Pakistan war 1965

(d) India-Pakistan war 1999

Explanation

— Defence Minister Rajnath Singh recently stated that if the Indian government had transformed the “strategic advances” made by soldiers into “strategic advantages” on the bargaining table following the 1965 war with Pakistan, the problem of cross-border infiltration would have been resolved.

— India has a 740-kilometer Line of Control (LoC) with Pakistan that runs across the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. The Indian Army has installed barbed wire barriers along the 540-kilometre Line of Control in Jammu and Kashmir to prevent militant infiltration and the smuggling of arms, ammunition and narcotics.

Operation Gibraltar

— In August 1965, Pakistani soldiers penetrated Kashmir disguised as locals, using the Haji Pir Pass as a major route.

— The objective was to provoke Kashmir’s Muslim-majority people against the Indian government. Pakistan believed that an uprising by the local population would help its Kashmir cause in international forums.

— Its military strategy was to have several columns occupy key heights in the Kashmir Valley, while others would mix with the local population and destroy Indian Army bridges, highways, communication and logistical installations, giving the appearance of a local uprising against the Indian government.

— However, the plan failed from the start because native Kashmiris did not resist, instead informing the Army and police of the presence of Pakistani infiltrators.

— As a result, additional forces were dispatched to the Valley, resulting in the capture or killing of the majority of the infiltrators.

— Following the end of the 1965 war with Pakistan, the government recognised several locals for their assistance.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Which of the following country’s presidents will be the chief guest at the Republic Day celebrations in 2025?

(a) Prabowo Subianto (Indonesia)

(b) Abdel Fattah el-Sisi (Egypt)

(c) Isaac Herzog (Israel)

(d) Donald J. Trump (United States)

Explanation

— Indonesian President Prabowo Subianto will be the principal guest at this year’s Republic Day celebrations, becoming the fourth Indonesian leader to receive this privilege.

— After arriving in New Delhi on January 23, he met with Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday as India and Indonesia seek to expand political, defence, and security cooperation.

— Prabowo recently stated that Indonesia is now a full member of BRICS, stating a willingness to serve as a “bridge between developed and developing nations”.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 12 to January 18, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 05 to January 11, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 29, 2024 to January 04, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 22 to December 28, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 15 to December 21, 2024

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