UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 18 to January 24, 2026

3. It is equipped for air-to-air refuelling of fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC focuses on defence indigenisation, strategic capability enhancement, and platform-based understanding of military assets rather than static defence facts. Questions on the C295 aircraft reflect UPSC’s integrated, capability-driven, and policy-oriented approach to national security and defence preparedness.

Explanation

— The first ‘Made in India’ C295 aircraft will be rolled out before September. The aircraft is being manufactured under a 2021 deal between India and Spain, where India formalised the acquisition of 56 Airbus C295 aircraft to replace the Indian Air Force’s (IAF) legacy AVRO 748 fleet for Rs 21,935 crore. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The C295’s induction “will bolster medium lift tactical capability of the IAF.” According to Airbus, the C295 is a versatile transport aircraft capable of several tasks — carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance, armed close air support, medical evacuation and airborne firefighting. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The aircraft can carry up to nine tonnes of payload or up to 71 personnel at a maximum cruise speed of 260 knots (around 480 kmph). It is also equipped for air-to-air refuelling of fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the e-passport, consider the following statements:

1. They have an RFID (radio-frequency identification) chip.

2. The e-passport has the details of biometric data, including fingerprints.

3. All new passports issued since January 2026 are e-passports.

4. There is no visible differentiator in an e-passport.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC Prelims is increasingly focusing on digital governance, technology-enabled public service delivery, and security-oriented reforms rather than isolated static facts. Questions on e-passports reflect UPSC’s integrated and process-based approach to contemporary governance issues.

Explanation

— India is estimated to have around 10 crore passport holders. The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) says all existing passports will be replaced by e-passports by 2035.

— All new passports issued since May 2025 are e-passports. An e-passport is essentially a regular passport book but with an RFID (radio-frequency identification) chip and antenna embedded inside it. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— The chip stores encrypted biometric data, including photographs and fingerprints, in a format compliant with International Civil Aviation Organisation standards. These can be read without contact by machines at immigration counters, enabling faster and reliable identity verification, say MEA officials. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The chip, which has a read-only memory, works only when it is near the machine and can’t be used to track a user’s whereabouts.

— A visible differentiator in an e-passport is a gold-coloured electronic passport symbol printed below the title on the front cover, in line with global standards. Other security features include interlocking micro-letters and relief tints. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the north-eastern region of India before Independence, consider the following statements:

1. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Mizoram were a part of colonial Assam.

2. Only Tripura was the princely state with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam.

3. Sikkim had enjoyed juridical independence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC Prelims is increasingly focusing on historical geography, frontier administration, and the political integration of peripheral regions rather than isolated factual recall. Questions on the North-Eastern region before Independence require linking colonial administrative arrangements, princely state relations, special governance mechanisms, and post-independence integration, reflecting UPSC’s process-based and continuity-driven approach to modern Indian history and political geography.

Explanation

— On January 21, 1972, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura were granted complete statehood as part of the Indian union. Preceding this momentous event was the passage of two laws by Parliament on December 30, 1971: the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act and the North-Eastern Council Act.

— Today, the region comprises eight states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura. Before Independence, five of these states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Mizoram) were a part of colonial Assam. Mizoram and Tripura were princely states, with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam. Sikkim had enjoyed juridical independence while under British paramountcy and became an independent country in 1947, before it was annexed by India in 1975. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the apple production in India, consider the following statements:

1. In India, apples are harvested between July and November.

2. Loamy soils, rich in organic matter with pH 5.5 to 6.5 are suitable for cultivation.

3. They can be grown at altitudes 1,500-2,700 m. above mean sea level in the Himalayan range.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is increasingly testing agro-climatic suitability, crop geography, and horticulture-based diversification rather than only cereal-centric agriculture. Apple cultivation links climate sensitivity, hill agriculture, farmer income, and horticulture-led growth, making it a high-probability conceptual question.

Explanation

— Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu urged the Union Minister for Commerce and Industry, Piyush Goyal, to increase the import duty on foreign apples from 50% to 100% in a meeting last week.

— Under the FTA with New Zealand, India granted concessions on select agricultural products, including apples, kiwis and honey. Import duty on New Zealand apples was reduced from 50% to 25%.

— The apple production economy in key states stands at around Rs 4,500 crore for Himachal Pradesh and Rs 12,000 crore for Jammu & Kashmir.

— In India, apples are harvested between July and November. During the off-season, apples stored in cold storage and Controlled Atmosphere (CA) facilities are sold. In New Zealand, apples are harvested between January/February and May, meaning they can supply fresh apples when Indian growers rely on stored produce. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Apple can be grown at altitudes 1,500-2,700 m. above m.s.l. in the Himalayan range which experience 1,000-1,500 hours of chilling (the no. of hours during which temperature remains at or below 70 C during the winter season). The temperature during the growing season is around 21-240 C. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Loamy soils, rich in organic matter with pH 5.5 to 6.5 and having proper drainage and aeration are suitable for cultivation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: nhb.gov.in)

QUESTION 5

Which of the following countries are the non-European members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)?

1. Canada

2. Australia

3. United States

4. Colombia

5. Japan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 3 and 5 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC Prelims is increasingly focusing on dynamic international groupings, alliance structures, and partner–member distinctions rather than static geopolitical facts. Questions on non-European members of NATO require linking evolving transatlantic security architecture, NATO’s global outreach, and Indo-Pacific partnerships.

Explanation

— US President Donald Trump announced that the US was exploring the “framework of a future deal” to settle the issue of Greenland, weeks after reviving his efforts to acquire the Danish territory.

— NATO, or the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, was formed in the aftermath of World War II with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty in 1949.

— At its founding, NATO had 12 countries from Europe and North America. It currently has 32 members, with 30 European countries. 23 of the European nations are members of the European Union as well.

— Non-European members are the United States and Canada.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Gangetic dolphins, consider the following statements:

1. It is India’s national aquatic animal.

2. It has been classified as “vulnerable” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

3. It is known as the ‘pink river dolphin or boto’.

4. The Gangetic dolphins are only found in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC Prelims is looking more at current wildlife, conservation, and river ecosystem topics rather than just memorizing facts. Questions on Gangetic dolphins test your understanding of national symbols, endangered species, and river health, which are important for schemes like Namami Gange and India’s biodiversity policies.

Explanation

— The Gangetic dolphins, India’s national aquatic animal, are found largely in the Ganges-Brahmaputra river system in the northern part of the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— They have also been classified as “endangered” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

(file image)

— These species can be found swimming in the Ganges, Brahmaputra, Karnaphuli, and Meghna rivers and their tributaries in India, Bangladesh, Nepal, and Bhutan. The adult can go up to 10 feet long, swimming on its side and leaving a flipper trailing behind to hunt for fish, shrimp and molluscs. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— The Amazon river dolphin, also known as the ‘pink river dolphin or boto’, is a freshwater species that inhabits water bodies in the Amazon and Orinoco river basins in Bolivia, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru, and Venezuela. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to Vitamin B12, consider the following statements:

1. It is a fat-soluble vitamin.

2. It depends heavily on other nutrients in food for absorption.

3. These are widely used for deficiency-related concerns.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The aspirants must focus on nutrition, health schemes, and vitamin deficiency issues rather than just memorising facts. Questions on Vitamin B12 test your understanding of water-soluble vs fat-soluble vitamins, absorption mechanisms, and public health relevance, which links to programs like POSHAN Abhiyaan, anemia control, and malnutrition prevention.

Explanation

— Vitamin B12 supplements are widely used for fatigue, nerve health, and deficiency-related concerns. However, with our fast-paced lifestyles and breakfast-skipping sprees, many people often pop supplements on an empty stomach. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Vitamin B12 can be consumed either with or without food, as the presence of food does not have a considerable effect on the absorption of the vitamin.. Since B12 is a water-soluble vitamin, it does not depend heavily on other nutrients in food for absorption. In fact, in certain forms, taking it on an empty stomach may work slightly faster. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

India is working on the establishment of its first “data embassy” in the:

(a) Norway

(b) Sweden

(c) Qatar

(d) U.A.E

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC Prelims is increasingly focusing on digital governance, data sovereignty, and international tech partnerships. These types of questions test the understanding of how India is protecting critical government data abroad, strengthening cybersecurity, and engaging in global tech diplomacy.

Explanation

— Among the takeaways of UAE President Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan’s three-hour whirlwind official visit to New Delhi, and his meeting with Prime Minister Narendra Modi, was the announcement regarding setting up of a data embassy or digital embassies in each other’s countries. The proposal, as and when it materialises, will be a first for India.

— A data embassy is essentially an offshore centre where a nation-state stores its critical digital data, with an aim to ensure digital continuity and sovereignty against cyberattacks, natural disasters, or geopolitical conflict. It functions as an extension of a country’s digital infrastructure, allowing governments to maintain essential services even if the physical territory becomes inaccessible, by providing backups of crucial databases in a trusted host nation.

— It is an embassy in the sense that it operates under the host country’s own laws and jurisdiction, just like a chancery building. The home country retains access and control over its data, which is protected and not subject to the host country’s jurisdiction.

— That New Delhi and Abu Dhabi have mutually decided to set up data centres in each other’s territory goes on to show the amount of trust the two countries have in each other, say officials. For India, the data to be digitally backed-up in the UAE territory may include crucial financial data and public records. However, data thus stored will only be accessible to the home country and its authorised representatives, officials added.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

The drug, Nivolumab, is effective against:

(a) Tuberculosis

(b) Hepatitis B

(c) Cancers

(d) Dengue

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC increasingly asks about new drugs, vaccines, and biotechnology advances under health, science & tech, and public health initiatives.

Explanation

— A Delhi High Court verdict on January 12 may have cleared the way for a significantly cheaper version of a blockbuster cancer therapy drug in India.

— The drug, Nivolumab, is effective against a range of cancers. Global pharmaceutical company ER Squibb and Sons, better known as Bristol Myers-Squibb (BMS), currently holds its patent in India. The patent expires in May.

— To fight an infection, our bodies create proteins known as antibodies. Nivolumab is a monoclonal antibody drug which acts by enhancing the immune response to fight cancerous cells.

— Monoclonal antibodies are lab-produced antibody molecules that can restore, enhance, modify or mimic our immune systems. These are used for targeted cellular action.

— This form of treatment is called immunotherapy. Nivolumab is similar to another immunotherapy monoclonal drug called Pembrolizumab, marketed as Keytruda by Merck (also currently under patent protection in India).

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Consider the following statements:

1. India continues to rely heavily on thermal power, with coal dominating not just grid-based electricity.

2. The draft National Electric Policy (NEP) 2026 pushes for the direct use of nuclear power by commercial and industrial consumers.

3. India’s nuclear capacity target for 2047 is 1000 GWe.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC is increasingly focusing on energy transition, decarbonisation pathways, and long-term strategic planning for net-zero goals. Questions on nuclear policy, coal dependence, and power-sector reforms test understanding of India’s energy security strategy and climate commitments, reflecting UPSC’s integrated approach to economy–environment–technology linkages.

Explanation

— Weeks after the government enacted the SHANTI Act to open India’s nuclear sector to private players, a new draft National Electricity Policy (NEP) signals a clear policy shift — a strong pivot to nuclear power as a potential substitute for coal-based thermal generation.

— India continues to rely heavily on thermal power, with coal dominating not just grid-based electricity but also captive power used by industries. Against this backdrop, the draft policy seeks to recalibrate the country’s power mix. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The draft policy 2026 pushes for the adoption of advanced nuclear technologies, including Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), other small-capacity reactors, and direct use of nuclear power by commercial and industrial consumers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— This push aligns with the government’s ambition of scaling India’s nuclear capacity to 100 GWe by 2047 — more than ten times the current installed capacity of 8.8 GWe — and builds on the SHANTI Act’s removal of long-standing legal and regulatory barriers to private participation in the sector. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 11 to January 17, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 04 to January 10, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 28, 2025 to January 03, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 21 to December 27, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 14 to December 20, 2025

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