UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 22 to February 28, 2026

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Defence indigenisation and Atmanirbhar Bharat in military technology are repeatedly in current affairs. UPSC frequently asks match-the-following questions on missiles, helicopters, and defence systems to test conceptual clarity.

Explanation

— The Indian Air Force demonstrated its combat prowess and firepower capabilities, and presented glimpses of missions undertaken during Operation Sindoor through simulated strikes at the Pokharan Field Firing Range under Exercise ‘Vayu Shakti’ in the presence of President Droupadi Murmu.

— Fighter jets and attack helicopters carried out synchronised operations, displaying strategy formulation, target identification and calibrated destruction. The IAF showcased a calibrated response for controlled escalation and precision strikes as part of the simulated mission.

— The indigenously developed HAL Light Combat Helicopter Prachand demonstrated its agility by striking a simulated refuelling point. Hence, pair 3 is not correct.

— Apache attack helicopters, Mirage fighter jets and Mi-17 V5 helicopters also participated in the coordinated operations, underlining the IAF’s multi-platform integration capability.

— Howitzer guns were deployed by Chinook helicopters in operational locations.

— An AKASH surface-to-air missile was also fired as part of the demonstration. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

— A briefing was given on the night targets, including tank clusters, bunker clusters and logistics clusters, which were destroyed by Su-30 and Jaguar fighter aircraft as well as Advanced Light Helicopter Rudra. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements about ‘musical road’:

Statement 1: The concept of a musical road entails specially engineered roads where music is generated through grooves embedded into the road surface.

Statement 2: The variation in tune generated from the grooves is determined by the spacing and width of each of the ribs.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question tests understanding of applied physics concepts in real-life infrastructure innovations. It links science & technology with governance, making it relevant for interdisciplinary Prelims preparation.

Explanation

— When the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC) unveiled a new technology along the Mumbai Coastal Road earlier this month, it came bearing the promise of a novel experience for Indian commuters: Drive past a 500-metre stretch between Priyadarshini Park in Malabar Hill and Amarsons Garden in Breach Candy at the speed threshold of 80 kmph and hear the road belt out tunes of the Oscar-winning song, “Jai Ho”, from the 2008 movie Slumdog Millionaire.

— The concept of a musical road entails specially engineered roads where music is generated through grooves embedded into the road surface. When vehicles drive past the precisely designed ribs at a constant speed, the road produces a musical tune. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The variation in tune generated from the grooves is determined by the spacing and width of each of the ribs. If the ribs are constructed closely, it produces higher notes while wider spacing creates lower tones. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the PM KISAN Samman Nidhi Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a farmers’ welfare scheme, under which eligible farmers receive financial assistance of Rs 2,000 every four months.

2. Land ownership is a key eligibility criterion for the scheme.

3. The scheme has a rule of one-beneficiary-per-family.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Government schemes, especially Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) programmes, are a high-frequency area in UPSC Prelims. PM-KISAN is often in news due to budget allocations, instalment releases, and beneficiary verification drives.

Explanation

— The 22nd instalment of the PM KISAN Yojana would be released any day now. Farmers who have completed all required procedures on time will face no issues in receiving the instalment, and the money will be transferred directly to their bank accounts.

— The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana is a farmers’ welfare scheme, under which eligible farmers receive financial assistance of Rs 2,000 every four months. The total disbursal amounts to Rs 6,000 per year. The amount is directly credited to their bank accounts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The scheme was started in 2018 and 21 instalments of the scheme have been disbursed so far. The last instalment of the PMKISAN was released on November 19, 2025.

— There are two main criteria for this. The first is verification of land records. The details of farmers who registered land in their name after February 1, 2019, are being specially examined. Since land ownership is a key eligibility criterion for the scheme, any mismatch in records could result in removal from the beneficiary list. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The second criteria is the one-beneficiary-per-family rule. In a family, husband, wife and minor children are treated as one unit. Only one person per family is eligible to receive benefits under the scheme. In cases where it was found that both husband and wife were receiving instalments, payments have been stopped. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the NVS-02 satellite, consider the following statements:

1. It was transferred to an elliptical transfer orbit using the GSLV-F15.

2. It was the 75th launch of ISRO.

3. The satellite was made to serve the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Space missions and launch milestones are high-probability current affairs topics for Prelims. The question tests clarity on launch vehicles (GSLV variants), orbit types (GTO vs circular), and mission objectives — common UPSC trap areas.

Explanation

— A broken electrical circuit is most likely why the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) failed to put navigation satellite NVS-02 in its intended orbit in January last year, according to a committee assessing the mission’s failure.

— The NVS-02 satellite was injected in an elliptical transfer orbit using the GSLV-F15 by the space agency in its 100th launch on January 29 last year. However, subsequent manoeuvres to place the satellite in its intended circular orbit failed, meaning it could not be used for its intended purpose of satellite-based positioning. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— The NVS-02 is the second of the five second-generation satellites developed by the space agency to replace the existing satellites in the country’s navigation constellation Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— “The committee has provided a set of recommendations aimed at enhancing the redundancy and reliability of pyro system operations for future missions,” the space agency said in a statement.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Which of the following are exempted from the user fee payment at toll plaza?

1. Vehicle of President

2. Vehicle of Awardee of Kirti Chakra

3. Vehicle of Armed force personnel if vehicle is used for official purposes

4. Vehicle of Member of Legislative assembly of a state

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question tests knowledge of statutory provisions and delegated legislation (National Highways Fee Rules), a recurring UPSC Prelims theme. It assesses clarity on constitutional authorities vs other public representatives, a common trap area in polity-based MCQs.

Explanation

— The toll exemptions and discounts on National Highways are governed by the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) Rules, 2008. As per Rule 11, the exemption from payment of the user fee or toll is applicable to specific categories of vehicles and persons with physical disabilities, subject to some conditions.

— According to the rule, the toll exemption for the serving army personnel who are using a private vehicle to commute shall be granted only when the vehicle is used for official purposes. The exemption is granted to the defence personnel on production of the pass as specified in the Indian Toll (Army and Air Force) Rules, 1942. Under the rules, exemption for serving Army personnel shall be extended only when the vehicle is used for official purposes.

— The 2008 rules specified the no toll shall be collected from the vehicle transporting and accompanying 25 kinds of people which includes President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Governor, Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court and High Court, Member of Parliament, Member of Legislative assembly of a state, Secretary to the Government, awardee of Pram Vir Chakra, Ashok Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, Kirti Chakra etc.

— Along with this, the vehicles used for official purposes by the Ministry of Defence, the central and state armed forces in uniform, including paramilitary forces and police, an Executive Magistrate, the fire-fighting department and NHAI or any other Government organisation using such vehicles for inspection, survey, construction or operation of national highways and maintenance.

— The vehicles used as ambulances, funeral vans and mechanical vehicles specially designed and constructed for the use of a person suffering from physical disability are exempt from user fee payment at the toll gate.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

A nationwide Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination campaign is aimed at:

(a) eradicating polio from India

(b) preventing cervical cancer

(c) eliminating malaria transmission

(d) preventing tuberculosis

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

HPV vaccination has been in news due to national immunisation expansion and budget announcements, making it a strong current affairs topic. The question tests clarity between different diseases and their respective vaccines, a common UPSC science trap area.

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a nationwide Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination campaign for girls aged 14, aimed at preventing cervical cancer, during his visit to Ajmer, Rajasthan.

— The initiative marks a major preventive healthcare push targeting one of the leading causes of cancer-related illness among women.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS), consider the following statements:

1. The scheme was launched in 2024.

2. The scheme focuses only on metro cities.

3. The scheme aims to privatise railway stations.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Major infrastructure schemes are frequently in news due to budget allocations, inaugurations, and foundation stone events, making them high-probability Prelims topics. The topic links infrastructure development with themes of urban transformation, connectivity, and public service delivery, recurring areas in Prelims.

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi is set to inaugurate eight redeveloped railway stations in Tamil Nadu on March 1. These stations have been modernised under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS).

— Launched in 2022, the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) aims at development and upgradation of stations over the Indian Railways (IR) network. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

— It covers redevelopment of stations across India, including small, medium, and major stations in many states and union territories. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The ABSS has a long-term vision that involves creating master plans, promoting multimodal connectivity, better station accessibility for passengers, etc.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC), consider the following statements:

1. It is responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe.

2. It meets at the United Nations Office at New York.

3. It was established in 2006 by the General Assembly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

International organisations and their structure, location, and functions are a recurring UPSC Prelims theme. The UNHRC frequently appears in current affairs due to India’s periodic review, voting patterns, and global human rights debates.

Explanation

— India sharply rebuked Pakistan at the United Nations Human Rights Council, accusing it of “hallucinating” and living in a “La La Land” for calling the Chenab rail bridge fake, and underscored that Jammu and Kashmir’s development budget is more than double the recent bailout package Islamabad sought from the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

— The Human Rights Council is the main intergovernmental body within the United Nations responsible for human rights. Established in 2006 by the General Assembly, it is responsible for strengthening the promotion and protection of human rights around the globe. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

— The Council, composed of 47 Member States, provides a multilateral forum to address human rights violations and country situations. It responds to human rights emergencies and makes recommendations on how to better implement human rights on the ground.

— It has the ability to discuss all thematic human rights issues and situations that require its attention throughout the year. It meets at the United Nations Office at Geneva. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.ohchr.org)

QUESTION 9

The “Operation Roaring Lion” was launched by:

(a) Israel

(b) Russia

(c) Iran

(d) Ukraine

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question tests awareness of current international conflicts and military operations, a frequent UPSC Prelims theme under International Relations. It links the geopolitics of West Asia to India’s interests.

Explanation

— Hours after Israel, along with the US, launched military strikes on Iran, the Israel Defence Forces posted a video showing the first visuals of airstrikes conducted under what it calls “Operation Roaring Lion”.

— The strike targeted dozens of military targets and was carried out as part of a broad, coordinated, and joint operation against the regime.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Ranji Trophy, consider the following statements:

1. It is a domestic first-class cricket championship played in India.

2. Jammu and Kashmir won their first Ranji Trophy in 2025-26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question tests awareness of recent sports achievements. It connects to broader themes of integration, federal structure, and post-reorganisation developments in Jammu & Kashmir.

Explanation

— Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) have made history. J&K won their maiden Ranji Trophy (domestic first-class cricket championship) title in the 2025–26 season, defeating Karnataka in the final which concluded on February 28, 2026. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Jammu and Kashmir played their first game in 1960. However, their first victory in the competition came only in their 99th match in 1982. Incidentally, it also happened to be the year that Karnataka won their third title. However, J&K’s fortunes have been on a steady rise in the past decade or so. They reached the quarterfinals in the 2013-14, 2019-20 and 2024-25 seasons.

(PTI Photo)

— Fast bowler Auqib Nabi’s stellar show with the ball, coupled with centuries from Shubham Pundir in the first innings and Qamran Iqbal in the second has helped them pip a star-studded Karnataka to 2025/26 Ranji Trophy title.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Recently, the Government of India unveiled a document called PRAHAAR. With reference to this, consider the following statements:

1. PRAHAAR is a strategic framework aimed at strengthening India’s preparedness and response to infectious disease outbreaks.

2. It seeks to improve coordination between the Union Government and States for time-bound implementation of health interventions.

3. The document has been prepared by NITI Aayog.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None of the above

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Questions like this are relevant for UPSC because they test awareness of government initiatives that often make headlines in newspapers. They also check whether aspirants can remember key details: not just read news, but retain facts for Prelims.

Explanation

— The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) on Monday unveiled India’s first publicly articulated national counter terror strategy document, PRAHAAR. Running into eight pages, the document lays out a broad framework of India’s approach to terrorism, the steps already taken over the years, and the plans it envisages for the future. Many of the measures listed are not new: they are either already in force through laws like the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act and other security statutes, or they reflect ongoing initiatives of the MHA and law enforcement agencies pulled together into one policy statement.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

With reference to the recent GDP estimates released in India, consider the following statements:

1. The base year for calculating India’s real GDP has been revised from 2011–12 to 2022–23.

2. Revision of the GDP base year has led to higher growth estimates for recent years compared to earlier data.

3. The base year for GDP calculation in India is decided by the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Such questions test an aspirant’s understanding of how macroeconomic indicators like GDP are measured, revised, and interpreted — a core area in the Indian Economy syllabus. They also reflect UPSC’s pattern of framing conceptual questions from current economic developments reported in newspapers like The Indian Express, demanding clarity beyond surface-level reading.

Explanation

— The Indian economy grew by 7.8% in October-December 2025 according to the new GDP series with 2022-23 as the base year, with growth for 2025-26 as a whole seen at 7.6% as per the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s (MoSPI) second advance estimate. This is higher than the first advance estimate of 7.4% released in January under the old GDP series which had a base year of 2011-12. This shows that growth estimates (for FY25) increased after rebasing, directly supporting the idea that revising the base year changed past growth figures.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to the celebration of National Science Day in India, which of the following statements are correct?

1.National Science Day commemorates a discovery in the field of light scattering by an Indian physicist.

2.The Government of India officially designated 28 February as National Science Day.

3.The 2026 theme emphasises the role of women in science for national development.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Though it appears straightforward, this question reflects UPSC’s pattern of linking important national observances with their scientific background and contemporary themes. For an aspirant, such questions are high-probability because UPSC often tests awareness of government-designated days, their objectives, and how they connect static concepts with current policy emphasis.

Explanation

— The journey from a small village to getting awarded the Nobel Prize and Bharat Ratan, CV Raman’s contribution to the field of science is remembered even today. From research over the scattering of light to X-rays and colours of the sea, Raman made the dream of India to be a leader in science and tech, one inch closer. It is to commemorate his works in the field of science, the government celebrates National Science Day on February 28. The 2026 theme focuses on “Women in Science: Catalysing Viksit Bharat.” The Government of India designated this date as National Science Day in 1986.

— February 28 is celebrated as National Science Day because on February 28, 1928, Chandrasekhara Venkata (CV) Raman announced the discovery of the Raman Effect and for it, he was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1930.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India permits legal farming of opium plants only to farmers in three states of India.

2. As a signatory to the United Nations Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 and as a licit producer of opium, India is required to adhere to the regulations under the convention.

3. Opium poppy cultivation is prohibited in India under NDPS Act, except under a license issued by the Central Bureau of Narcotics.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant for UPSC Prelims as it tests an aspirant’s understanding of narcotics regulation, international conventions, and statutory frameworks like the NDPS Act — areas often linked to governance and internal security. It also reflects UPSC’s trend of integrating current affairs with legal and institutional provisions requiring precise conceptual clarity.

Explanation

— The cybercrime cell of the Border Range of the Gujarat Police recently raided a field in Bhimasar village located in the jurisdiction of Adesar police station in eastern Kutch and found opium plant (Papaver somniferum) cultivation spread over two acres of farmland.

— While the Government of India does permit legal farming of opium plants, this permission is given only to farmers in three states – Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

— According to details from the website of the Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) under the Department of Revenue of the Union Finance Ministry, “Licit cultivation is carried out in India in selected tracts notified by the Central Government annually in the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Licences are issued by the CBN to eligible cultivators in the above three States as per the General Conditions relating to the Grant of Licence framed by the Central Government.”

— Opium poppy cultivation is prohibited in India under Section 8 of NDPS Act, 1985, except under a license issued by the Central Bureau of Narcotics under Rule 8 of NDPS Rules, 1985. As a signatory to the United Nations Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 and as a licit producer of opium, India is required to adhere to the regulations under the convention.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

With reference to the Cheetah Reintroduction Programme in India, consider the following statements:

1.The first two batches of African cheetahs were brought to India from Namibia in 2022 and from South Africa in 2023.

2.The latest batch of cheetahs brought to India will be translocated from Nigeria and released into quarantine enclosures at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant for UPSC as it tests an aspirant’s understanding of contemporary wildlife conservation initiatives, a key part of Environment and Ecology in Prelims and GS Paper III. It also sharpens factual precision and the ability to link current affairs with static concepts like species translocation, protected areas, and biodiversity governance.

Explanation

— Eight cheetahs from Botswana will be flown into India on Saturday as part of the Centre’s ambitious cheetah reintroduction programme, taking the total number of the big cats in the country to 46. The animals will be released into quarantine enclosures at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh, where officials will closely monitor their health and behaviour before gradually preparing them for life in the wild. This is the third batch of African cheetahs brought to India under the translocation programme, following earlier introductions from Namibia in September 2022 and South Africa in February 2023.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 15 to February 21, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 08 to February 14, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 01 to February 07, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 25 to January 31, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 18 to January 24, 2026

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