UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 08 to February 14, 2026

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 4 and 5 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC often tests clarity between manned vs unmanned missions, mission objectives, and country-wise space initiatives in elimination-based prelims questions.

Explanation

— NASA’s Artemis mission continues to run into challenges. Engineers faced a new hiccup during a test of the massive rocket that will carry four astronauts around the Moon for the first time in over 50 years. During the technical evaluation, the NASA team faced an “issue” with the ground support equipment while operators attempted to partially load the Space Launch System’s liquid hydrogen tank.

— So far only the US has achieved successful manned missions to the moon. Between 1969 and 1972, twelve astronauts explored the lunar surface across six successful Apollo missions. Apollo 11 achieved the first crewed Moon landing in July 1969.

— Artemis-3 is likely to launch in 2027-28 and the Artemis-4 and 5 could launch in 2028-29 and 2030, respectively.

— China has also announced a manned mission to the moon under its Chang’e Project. The China Manned Space Agency has set a preliminary target of landing two astronauts on the moon by 2030.

— India is planning to send its first astronauts to the Moon by 2040 under Space Vision 2047.

— Artemis I was an uncrewed test flight around the Moon, while Gaganyaan is India’s human spaceflight mission to Low Earth Orbit, not to the Moon.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Combined Task Force (CTF) 154, consider the following statements:

1. It is dedicated to enhancing maritime security across the Middle East and the wider region.

2. CTF 154’s core staff consists of members from India.

3. CTF 154 operates alongside Combined Maritime Forces (CMF), headquartered in Chennai.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This topic fits under International Relations and security groupings in the UPSC syllabus. It tests factual awareness of multinational maritime task forces, their mandates, and headquarters locations. UPSC frequently frames statements on new coalitions, India’s participation, and organisational structures for elimination-based questions.

Explanation

— The Indian Navy has taken command of Combined Task Force (CTF) 154, a key multinational training task force under the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF). The change of command ceremony was held at CMF Headquarters in Manama, Bahrain, and was presided over by Vice Admiral Curt A. Renshaw, Commander, CMF/US NAVCENT/US Fifth Fleet. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Commodore Milind M Mokashi from the Indian Navy formally took over as Commander CTF 154 from the outgoing Commander of the Italian Navy. “India’s participation in CMF, and now the responsibility of leading CTF 154, reflects its enduring commitment to regional security, cooperative engagement and a rules-based international order,” Commodore Mokashi said.

— CTF 154 is specifically oriented towards training and capacity building of member nations of CMF.

— Established in May 2023, CTF 154 is dedicated to enhancing maritime security through multinational training programmes across the Middle East and the wider region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— CTF 154 conducts multinational maritime training at locations across the Middle East, enabling more CMF partner-nations to participate in training opportunities without ships or aircraft, particularly during courses that are facilitated ashore.

— CTF 154’s core staff consists of members from Canada, Egypt, Jordan, Seychelles, Turkey, and the United States. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— CTF 154 operates alongside CMF’s other task forces: CTF 150 (Maritime Security), CTF 151 (Counter-Piracy), CTF 152 (Maritime Security in Arabian Gulf) and CTF 153 (Maritime Security in Red Sea).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), consider the following statements:

1. The council is chaired by the Prime Minister.

2. The function of DAC is to monitor the progress of major projects based on feedback from the Defence Procurement Board.

3. It is mandatory for the council to meet twice in a year.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

For Prelims 2026, this topic falls under Polity & Governance – Executive bodies and defence administration. The question tests factual clarity about the structure, chairperson, and functions of key defence decision-making bodies like the Defence Acquisition Council. With increasing focus on defence indigenisation, capital procurement approvals, and Make-in-India in defence, DAC has been frequently in current affairs.

Explanation

— The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) cleared the long-awaited proposal to buy 114 Rafale fighter jets from France under an inter-governmental deal for the Indian Air Force (IAF), of which 90 jets would be manufactured in India, top government officials told The Indian Express.

(File photo)

— The DAC, headed by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, has also cleared the procurement of six additional P8I maritime surveillance and anti-submarine warfare aircraft from the US for the Navy. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The DAC monitors the progress of major projects on feedback from the Defence Procurement Board. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The DAC will meet as required. There is no mandatory constitutional or statutory requirement for DAC to meet a fixed number of times yearly. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: mod.gov.in)

QUESTION 4

With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements:

1. It was set up following the Covid-19 outbreak.

2. The fund was registered as a Public Charitable Trust and its trust deed has been registered under the Registration Act, 1908.

3. Parliament questions and matters related to the PM CARES Fund are admissible under rules related to the conduct of business in Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

PM CARES Fund has been in the spotlight due to debates about its legal standing, transparency, RTI application, and parliamentary oversight. UPSC frequently asks factual questions on a body’s status as a statutory entity, government fund, or public trust, as well as its registration and legal structure.

Explanation

— The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has told the Lok Sabha Secretariat that Parliament questions and matters related to PM CARES Fund, the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) and the National Defence Fund (NDF) are not admissible under rules related to the conduct of business in Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The PM CARES fund was set up on March 27, 2020, following the Covid-19 outbreak. “Keeping in mind the need for having a dedicated fund with the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected, a public charitable trust under the name of ‘Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM CARES Fund)’ has been set up,” the official website of PM CARES fund states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The fund was registered as a Public Charitable Trust and its trust deed has been registered under the Registration Act, 1908, at New Delhi on March 27, 2020. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The other two funds mentioned in the January 30, 2026 communication from the PMO are also controlled by the PM office.

(i) The Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was established in January 1948 with public contributions to assist displaced persons from Pakistan. Its resources are now utilised primarily to render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities like floods, cyclones and earthquakes, etc., and to the victims of major accidents and riots.

(ii) The National Defence Fund (NDF) is used for the welfare of members of the Armed Forces, including paramilitary forces, and their dependents. The fund is administered by an Executive Committee, with the PM as Chairperson, and Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members, according to its official website.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Government Security (G-Sec), consider the following statements:

1. These are the tradeable instruments issued only by the Central Government.

2. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.

3. These are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Government Securities (G-Secs) are frequently in current affairs due to fiscal deficit trends, market borrowing programmes, and RBI’s liquidity operations. UPSC often tests conceptual clarity on terms like sovereign guarantee, risk-free instruments, and distinction between Central and State borrowings.

Explanation

— On February 3, Andhra Pradesh and Assam borrowed Rs 1,100 crore and Rs 1,000 crore respectively through auction sales of 15-year state government securities at an average yield or interest rate of 7.66%.

What is Government Security?

— A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation. Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).

— G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.rbi.org.in)

QUESTION 6

If your name was on the draft Special Intensive Revision (SIR) roll and has not made it to the final roll, you can appeal against the decision before:

(a) Booth Level Officer

(b) Chief Electoral Officer of your state

(c) ECINET portal

(d) District Election Officer

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question tests procedural clarity regarding electoral rolls and the powers of authorities under the supervision of the Election Commission of India. UPSC commonly frames factual questions on who has appellate authority, hierarchy of election officials, and statutory procedures under election laws.

Explanation

— The Election Commission’s Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in nine states and three Union Territories, which started in October last year, is heading to its conclusion. The final electoral rolls prepared under the SIR exercise are set to be published.

— Once the final electoral roll is published in your state, you can check your registration by visiting electoralsearch.eci.gov.in and searching for your details using your Electors’ Photo Identity Card (EPIC) number.

— If your name was on the draft roll and has not made it to the final roll, you can appeal against the decision. You have 15 days from the date of publication of the final roll to appeal before the District Election Officer (DEO), who is the District Magistrate.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

While the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has a 4% target in terms of headline inflation, it keeps a close eye on underlying price pressures which respond to demand changes – something it can control through interest rate hikes or cuts. This is known as:

(a) Core Inflation

(b) Headline Inflation

(c) Stagflation

(d) Disinflation

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC often tests conceptual clarity between similar economic terms (core vs headline, disinflation vs deflation), making this a classic prelims area.

Explanation

— India finally has a brand-new Consumer Price Index (CPI) basket that not only uses a fairly recent year as the base for prices – 2024 – but also considers the prices of goods and services households buy now instead of a-decade-and-a-half ago when it comes to calculating the overall change in price levels.

— While the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has a 4% target in terms of headline inflation, it keeps a close eye on underlying price pressures which respond to demand changes – something it can control through interest rate hikes or cuts. This is called core inflation and can be broadly defined as inflation excluding food and fuel items, which are things you would buy irrespective of their prices because they are needed to live (food) and make a living (fuel to travel to work).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Consider the following statements:

1. India and this nation celebrated 60 years of diplomatic relations last year and upgraded relations to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.

2. In the fiscal year 2024-25, this country remained India’s largest source of FDI for the seventh consecutive year.

2. This country functions as a strategic launchpad. With its extensive free trade agreements, strong air-sea connectivity, well-developed financial ecosystem and proximity to ASEAN markets.

The above mentioned statements refer to:

(a) Indonesia

(b) South Korea

(c) Malaysia

(d) Singapore

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

For Prelims 2026, this question falls under International Relations – India’s bilateral relations and economic diplomacy. UPSC often frames identification-based questions using clues like FDI rankings, partnership upgrades, and ASEAN connectivity. The question tests awareness of India’s Act East policy, regional economic integration, and strategic partnerships in Southeast Asia.

Explanation

— India and Singapore celebrated 60 years of diplomatic relations last year and upgraded relations to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. Singapore and India’s engagement is built on structured, institutional dialogue, ensuring continuity beyond changing external conditions.

— Singapore’s reputation for ease of engagement stems from clear processes, strong institutional mandates and efficient government-to-business systems.

— Singapore has consistently ranked among India’s leading sources of foreign direct investment, reinforcing trust and confidence in the bilateral economic corridor. In the fiscal year 2024-25, Singapore remained India’s largest source of FDI for the seventh consecutive year, contributing nearly USD 14.94 –15 billion, which accounted for around 19 % of India’s total foreign direct investment inflows. Similarly, Singapore is also India’s largest ODI recipient in fiscal year 2024-25.

— Bilateral trade and cooperation frameworks like the Singapore-India Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA), which entered into force in 2005, continue to reinforce business confidence and deepen cross-border collaboration.

— Singapore functions as a strategic launchpad. With its extensive free trade agreements, strong air-sea connectivity, well-developed financial ecosystem and proximity to ASEAN markets, Singapore enables Indian firms to scale regionally and globally while maintaining close operational links with India.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Aravallis, consider the following statements:

1. These are among the youngest fold mountain ranges in the world.

2. It stretches across Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi only.

3. The range acts as a shield for the northern plains against the incursion of sand from the Thar desert in the west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Aravalli Range is frequently in current affairs due to issues of mining, desertification, urbanisation, and ecological degradation. UPSC often frames statement-based questions mixing age, extent, and ecological significance of major physiographic features.

Explanation

— The Supreme Court’s latest intervention in the Aravalli hills case has effectively put the brakes on the Haryana government’s ambitious Jungle Safari project near Gurugram and Nuh. The state government has positioned the project to build one of the world’s largest safari parks as a flagship eco-tourism and biodiversity initiative.

— The Aravallis are among the oldest mountain ranges in the world, stretching across Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi and Gujarat. They are ecologically sensitive and have been the subject of extensive litigation over mining, land degradation and forest protection. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— The range acts as a shield for the northern plains against the incursion of sand from the Thar desert in the west. This also protects air quality in the North. Any rising incursion of sand would be disastrous for the Delhi-NCR Region, which is already struggling to contain local sources of pollution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The hills also bring in a healthy amount of rainfall, which is essential for agriculture and drinking water needs of settlements that are located around them. As per studies, deforestation, quarrying and erosion has already led to 12 major gaps in the Aravallis.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the ‘Vande Mataram’, consider the following statements:

1. It is the National Song of India.

2. The Union government’s directive provides for singing the Vande Mataram before ‘Jana Gana Mana.

3. The time taken to sing ‘Vande Mataram’ is less than time taken for ‘Jana Gana Mana’

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

UPSC often frames factual questions distinguishing between National Anthem vs National Song, their status, and official guidelines. Such questions test clarity on constitutional conventions, government notifications, and symbolic aspects of nationhood.

Explanation

— The Union government’s January 28 directive on singing all six stanzas of the National Song, Vande Mataram, at official functions has sparked objections from Muslim organisations in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The directive, which notified the first set of protocols for singing the National Song, stated that the full version of Vande Mataram — lasting 3 minutes and 10 seconds — must be played before Jana Gana Mana when both are part of official functions, and that the audience shall stand in attention when it is performed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Time taken is less than Jana Gana Mana is 52 seconds while for Vande Mataram is 3 minutes and 10 seconds. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Vande Mataram (meaning mother, I bow to thee) was composed in Sanskritised Bengali by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1875. Six years later, it was included in his novel Anandamath, which tells the story of the late-18th century Sanyasi Rebellion — a series of armed uprisings against the rule of Mir Jafar and his East India Company overlords.

— Vande Mataram emerged as a rallying cry during the Swadeshi movement (1905–08), becoming closely associated with the freedom struggle.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

The theme of the AI Summit 2026, which India is set to host in February, draws inspiration from which one of the following ancient Indian principles?

(a) Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam

(b) Sarvajana Hitaya, Sarvajana Sukhaya

(c) Pratityasamutpada

(d) Nishkama Karma

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

With India set to host the AI Summit 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, the event connects contemporary technological policy with ancient Indian philosophical thought. If you think asking questions on summit themes is old school for UPSC, you are mistaken, the exam often frames straightforward yet concept-based questions linking current affairs with traditional principles.

Explanation

— India will be hosting its first-ever AI summit next week. The India AI Summit 2026, which will be taking place at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, from February 16 to February 20, is expected to serve as a centre for conversations about AI policy, research, industry and public engagement.

— The summit will also attract global tech leaders and the biggest names in artificial intelligence and highlight India’s role in shaping the technology. The theme is: Sarvajana Hitaya, Sarvajana Sukhaya.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

Consider the following diseases:

1. Sickle Cell Disease

2. Thalassemia

3. Lysosomal Storage Disorders

4. Parkinson’s disease

The first government-supported national biobank, recently seen in the news, is related to which of the above diseases?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

With the launch of the first government-supported national biobank for Lysosomal Storage Disorders in the news, it highlights developments in rare disease research and public health policy. In science-based Prelims questions, UPSC may not test deep medical details, but an aspirant should at least know what the news is about and broadly identify the disease category associated with the initiative.

Explanation

— Researchers from 28 medical and research institutions across six states and two union territories have compiled the first government-supported national biobank of a sub-section of rare diseases called Lysosomal Storage Disorders (LSDs).

— Most of these diseases currently have no treatment at all, and the few that do have therapies that cost more than Rs 1 crore per patient per annum.

— The biobank integrates the biological samples of 530 patients from 15 states with detailed clinical, biochemical, and genetic information. It is already in use by at least two research centres working on developing cures. It is expected to aid in developing screening techniques and affordable treatments for children suffering from these life-threatening genetic diseases.

— “Lysosomal storage disorders (LSDs) are a diverse group of over 70 rare, inherited metabolic conditions that present significant diagnostic and therapeutic challenges, especially in genetically diverse and resource-limited settings like India,” said Dr Harsh Sheth, Biobank and project coordinator.

— LSDs cause a buildup of toxic materials in the body’s cells. According to the Cleveland Clinic, patients with LSDs lack certain enzymes or the enzyme activator, a substance that helps the enzyme work. In their absence, the patient’s body fails to break down fats and sugars, which can accumulate and be harmful.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

Consider the following pairs of places:

1. Mumbai – Thane

2. Kochi – Willingdon Island

3. Visakhapatnam – Bhogapuram

The country’s first underwater twin tube road-cum-rail tunnel project, recently approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), will connect which of the above?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None of the above

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

With the Cabinet approval of India’s first underwater twin tube road-cum-rail tunnel project in Assam, the development brings focus to major infrastructure initiatives in the Northeast. UPSC can frame a basic location-based question testing an aspirant’s awareness of important connectivity projects and their geographical placement, rather than directly asking about the news event.

Explanation

— The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the construction of the country’s first underwater twin tube road-cum-rail tunnel project. The new infrastructure project will be developed at an estimated cost of Rs 18,662 crore.

India’s first underwater twin-tube Road-cum-Rail tunnel in Assam (Image: Ministry of Railways)

— While the underwater twin tube road-cum-rail tunnel will be located in Assam, its impact will extend beyond the state, enhancing connectivity for Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and other Northeast regions.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Consider the following rivers:

1. Jhelum

2. Chenab

3. Ravi

4. Indus

The Tulbul Navigation Project, recently seen in the news, is located on which of the above rivers?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

With the Tulbul Navigation Project in news amid discussions around the Indus Waters Treaty, it highlights the geographical and treaty-based classification of rivers in the Indus system. UPSC can frame a basic mapping-based Prelims question testing an aspirant’s understanding of the location of the project on the Jhelum river and its linkage with the IWT framework.

Explanation

— On Tuesday (February 10), Jammu and Kashmir Chief Minister Omar Abdullah said in the J&K Legislative Assembly that his government is working with the Centre on two projects that were put into abeyance because of objections from Pakistan citing the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT).

— “We are working on two things… first, the Tulbul Navigation Project (TNP) and secondly, lifting of water from the Chenab river near Akhnoor for supply to Jammu city,” Abdullah said. “The efforts are in progress and I hope that work on both these projects will start soon.”

— Also known as the “Wular Barrage”, the TNP was first conceived in the 1980s, and work on the project began in 1984. However, it was halted after Pakistan’s objections and the eruption of militancy in J&K in 1989.

— The project aimed to have a uniform flow of water in the Jhelum – one of three rivers in the Kashmir Valley that fall within the ambit of the now suspended IWT – throughout the year to ensure navigation in the water body.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Consider the following statements regarding Article 94 of the Constitution of India recently seen in the news:

1. A Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People shall vacate office if he or she ceases to be a member of the House of the People.

2. A Speaker or Deputy Speaker may resign from office by submitting a resignation addressed to the President of India.

3. A Speaker or Deputy Speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

With the Opposition demanding the removal of Speaker Om Birla in recent news, the issue highlights constitutional provisions related to the office of the Speaker. Instead of asking directly about the controversy, UPSC can frame a basic Polity question on Constitutional Article and the procedure for removal of the Speaker in the Lok Sabha.

Explanation

— The Opposition recently moved a no confidence motion against Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla. Lok Sabha sources said that it would now be examined and processed as per rules.

— The Congress and other parties have attacked Birla for not allowing Leader of Opposition (LoP) Rahul Gandhi to quote from or speak about former Indian Army Chief General M M Naravane’s unpublished memoir, and for Birla’s claim that Prime Minister Narendra Modi could have been attacked inside the House.

— Yes, the process does not apply to the Rajya Sabha or Council of States. According to practices and procedures governing the conduct of legislative business in the House, the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker can be removed from office by a resolution of Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. This is procedurally possible under Article 94 (c) of the Constitution. Article 94, per se, provides for the vacation, resignation and removal of those occupying the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker; the rules in this regard, however, are stringent.

— Statement 1 is correct — Under Article 94(a), the Speaker or Deputy Speaker vacates office if he or she ceases to be a member of the House of the People.

— Statement 2 is incorrect — The resignation is addressed to the Deputy Speaker (in case of Speaker) or to the Speaker (in case of Deputy Speaker), not to the President of India.

— Statement 3 is correct — Under Article 94(c), removal requires a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 01 to February 07, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 25 to January 31, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 18 to January 24, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 11 to January 17, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 04 to January 10, 2026

Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.

Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.