UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 09 – August 15): 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2027

1. Farming and food processing

2. Green and blue economy

3. Technology and innovation

4. Manufacturing

5. Urban Governance

6. Higher education

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2027 as it tests awareness of the “Sapta Dhara” development framework announced by the Prime Minister, linking current affairs with economic and developmental priorities.

Explanation

— Addressing the nation on the 80th Independence Day, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced a series of measures across artificial intelligence (AI), semiconductors, sports and other sectors. Several of these build on existing programmes or reiterate earlier targets.

— Prime Minister Modi outlined what he called “Sapta Dhara”, or seven streams of development, as a framework that will bring together several of the government’s existing policy priorities over the next five to seven years. These are manufacturing; farming and food processing; technology and innovation; infrastructure; defence; the green and blue economy; and soft power.

— For manufacturing, the PM stressed cost, quality and scale; under technology, he referred to areas including space, quantum, robotics and 6G; while the infrastructure stream includes high-speed rail, highways, inland waterways and port-led development.

— He also identified defence self-reliance, including drones, hypersonic technologies and cybersecurity, and the green and blue economy — including green manufacturing, fisheries and coastal tourism — among the seven areas.

— Urban governance and higher education are not included in the “Sapta Dhara”, or seven streams of development.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Sun’s corona, consider the following statements:

1. The corona’s magnetic field triggers solar flares and coronal mass ejections.

2. The corona is the Sun’s outermost atmosphere.

3. Solar Eclipse provides helio-physicists to make ground-based observations of the solar atmosphere.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2027 as it tests conceptual understanding of the Sun’s corona, solar activity and space-weather phenomena. It connects solar flares and CMEs with the Sun’s magnetic field, an important area of Science and Technology current affairs.

Explanation

— For scientists, observing the Sun’s corona and the inner corona is crucial. The corona’s magnetic field triggers solar flares and “coronal mass ejections”, which can disrupt satellites, GPS and other communication systems on Earth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The corona is the Sun’s outermost atmosphere, extending millions of kilometres into space. The inner corona is the part of the Sun’s outer atmosphere that is closest to the star’s surface. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— However, it is extremely faint. To study it, scientists need to block the solar disc artificially using an instrument called a coronagraph, which is usually placed on solar probes or missions. On many occasions, however, these instruments are affected by scattered light — making it impossible to observe the inner corona.

— During a total solar eclipse, the Moon completely blocks the solar disc, making the inner corona visible in the form of a halo around the lunar body. This provides helio-physicists with a valuable window to make ground-based observations of the solar atmosphere. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Bodh Gaya Temple Act, 1949, consider the following statements:

1. The Act was enacted by the Bihar legislature to regulate the management and control of the Bodh Gaya Temple and its properties.

2. The Act created an eight-member committee with all Buddhist members.

3. The Act makes the Governor of Bihar serve as the ex-officio chairperson of the committee.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2027 as it tests knowledge of state-specific legislation governing the management of religious institutions, an area linked to constitutional and governance issues. The Bodh Gaya Temple Act is also relevant in the context of Buddhist heritage, religious administration and the debate over management of the Mahabodhi Temple.

Explanation

— A Supreme Court bench led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Surya Kant deferred hearing a challenge to the constitutional validity of the Bodh Gaya Temple Act, which governs one of the most important sites in Buddhism.

— In 1949, the Bodh Gaya Temple Act was enacted in the Bihar legislature to regulate the management and control of the temple and its properties. It creates an eight-member committee with four Hindu and four Buddhist members. The government can nominate one secretary among them, while the Gaya district magistrate serves as the ex-officio chairperson. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following are the gallantry awards?

1. Ashoka Chakra

2. Padma Shri

3. Kirti Chakra

4. Bharat Ratna

5. Shaurya Chakra

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only

(c) 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 3 and 5 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2027 as it tests the distinction between military gallantry awards and civilian awards, an area where UPSC can frame statement-based questions. The topic is relevant to current affairs as gallantry awards are periodically announced on occasions such as Republic Day and Independence Day.

Explanation

— President Droupadi Murmu on Friday approved 78 gallantry awards, including 13 awarded posthumously, for personnel from the Defence Forces and Central Armed Police Forces. The awards include nine Kirti Chakras, of which seven are posthumous; one Bar (conferred second time) to the Shaurya Chakra; and 19 Shaurya Chakras, including one posthumous.

— Post-independence, first three gallantry awards namely Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra were instituted by the Government of India on 26th January, 1950 which were deemed to have effect from the 15th August, 1947.

— Thereafter, other three gallantry awards i.e. Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II and Ashoka Chakra Class-III were instituted by the Government of India on 4th January, 1952, which were deemed to have effect from the 15th August, 1947. These awards were renamed as Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra and Shaurya Chakra respectively in January, 1967.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: gallantryawards.gov.in)

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements regarding the ICC World Test Championship (WTC):

1. To qualify for the WTC final, a team must finish among the top two teams in the league-stage standings.

2. The WTC points table is determined solely on the basis of the number of wins and total points accumulated, without considering the proportion of points won from those available.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2027 as it tests understanding of the World Test Championship’s points and qualification system, an emerging area of sports-related current affairs. The topic is relevant for keeping track of major international sporting competitions and their formats, which UPSC has occasionally covered in Prelims.

Explanation

— The World Test Championship (WTC) final race is taking shape, with Australia, South Africa and New Zealand occupying the top three places, while India faces a steep climb to qualify for the summit clash. The next few months will offer a clearer picture of which teams move ahead of the rest and stake a claim as contenders for next year’s final at The Oval.

— The top two teams in the WTC points table at the end of the league phase qualify for the final. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Teams are ranked primarily by their percentage of points (PCT). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), consider the following statements:

1. A JPC is an ad-hoc body.

2. Joint committees are set up by a motion passed in one house of Parliament and agreed to by the other.

3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha governs the composition and functions of the committee.

4. The recommendations of the JPC are binding on the government.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2027 as it tests the nature, constitution and functioning of Joint Parliamentary Committees, an important aspect of parliamentary oversight. The topic is relevant due to the increasing use of JPCs to examine complex legislative, administrative and policy issues.

Explanation

— The Lok Sabha referred the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) amid strong objections from the Opposition and the Church to provisions, including retrospective vesting of foreign-funded assets in a government-designated authority.

— The Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad hoc body. It is configured for a specified object and duration. Joint committees are formed by a motion voted in one house of Parliament and agreed upon by the other. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— For example, the government moved a motion in the Lok Sabha to form a JPC on the stock market scam (2001) and pesticide residues in soft drinks (2003). The motion on the stock market scam formed a JPC of 30 members, with 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. The motion to form the Pesticides JPC had ten Lok Sabha members and five Rajya Sabha members.

— Its composition and terms of reference are determined through the parliamentary motion establishing it, and the committee functions under the relevant parliamentary rules. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The recommendations of a JPC are not binding on the government. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: prsindia.org)

QUESTION 7

The web series ‘Operation Safed Sagar’ is based on the air operations conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) during:

(a) India-Pakistan War, 1971

(b) Kargil War, 1999

(c) India-Pakistan War, 1965

(d) Operation Sindoor, 2025

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

It links defence-related current affairs with India’s post-independence military history, a recurring area of UPSC Prelims. The topic can also test the ability to match military operations with the conflicts in which they were conducted.

Explanation

— Operation Safed Sagar — the acclaimed Netflix series based on real events from the air operations conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) during the 1999 Kargil war — highlights the photo reconnaissance (photo-recce) missions executed by the No. 17 ‘Golden Arrows’ squadron during that time.

— The squadron, equipped with MiG-21 aircraft, played a crucial role in conducting multiple photo-recce sorties. These missions, along with those carried out by other IAF fighter squadrons, were instrumental in identifying the extent of the Pakistani intrusion along the Line of Control.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

The term “Gray-zone coercion” refers to:

(a) The use of military force in a formally declared war to compel an adversary to accept specific political demands.

(b) The use of diplomatic negotiations and international mediation exclusively to resolve disputes between states.

(c) The use of covert or ambiguous measures, falling below the threshold of conventional armed conflict, to pressure an adversary and alter its behaviour.

(d) The imposition of economic sanctions by international organisations following a formal determination of aggression.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important for UPSC Prelims 2027 as “gray-zone coercion” is an emerging concept in international relations and modern warfare, particularly relevant to India’s strategic environment. It tests understanding of non-conventional methods of statecraft, such as cyber operations, disinformation, economic pressure and covert actions.

Explanation

— The European Union and the Philippines signed a statement announcing that they were significantly expanding their cooperation on defence, maritime security and strategic resilience.

— Security is a key part of the EU-Philippines agreement. As part of the pact, the EU has approved its first-ever security assistance measure in the Indo-Pacific under the European Peace Facility (EPF), worth €15 million (about $17 million).

— The assistance measure is expected to strengthen the Philippines’ “maritime domain awareness” while supporting freedom of navigation and respect for international law, an EU Spokesperson at the European Commission’s (EC) offices in Brussels.

— “Gray-zone coercion” refers to actions just short of open conflict that are meant to pressure or intimidate another country. These include using coast guard vessels, water cannons or aggressive manoeuvres in disputed waters — an apt description for China’s playbook over the years.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers – Disclosure Scheme (FAST-DS), consider the following statements:

1. It allows taxpayers to declare their undisclosed foreign bank accounts.

2. The amount of investment in the asset declared under this scheme will be included in the total income of the taxpayer under the Income-tax Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important as it tests understanding of India’s tax-compliance framework for undisclosed foreign assets and the FAST-DS. The topic is relevant for UPSC Prelims due to its linkage with black money, tax evasion, voluntary disclosure and financial transparency.

Explanation

— The government has notified a one-time voluntary disclosure scheme, Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers – Disclosure Scheme (FAST-DS), allowing taxpayers to declare their undisclosed foreign bank accounts, immovable property, jewellery, artistic work, shares, securities or any other asset or income on payment of a specified tax or fee. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified the Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers – Disclosure Scheme Rules, 2026, operationalising the Budget announcement of FAST-DS, effective August 16 with last declaration date on December 31. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The scheme applies to two broad categories of asset or income — undisclosed foreign income or asset located outside India up to Rs 1 crore in value; and assets located outside India up to Rs 5 crore in value acquired from income accruing or arising outside India by an assessee when he or she was a non-resident, but did not declare them in the tax return on becoming a resident; or assets acquired from income offered to tax under the Income-tax Act but not declared in the relevant schedule in the tax return.

— Under the first category, taxpayers need to pay 30% of fair market value of assets or 30% of undisclosed income as tax and 30% as additional income tax in lieu of penalty in order to get immunity from prosecution. For the second category, immunity from both penalty and prosecution is available with the fee payment of Rs 1 lakh.

— On making a valid declaration and payment under FAST-DS, immunity will be provided from any further tax or penalty, and from prosecution, under the Black Money Act, 2015, in respect of the income or asset so declared, the Income Tax Department said. Also, the income or amount of investment in the asset declared under this scheme will not be included in the total income of the taxpayer under the Income-tax Act or the Black Money Act. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the Bar Council of India (BCI), consider the following statements:

1. It lays down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.

2. It exercises general supervision and control over State Bar Councils.

3. It directly enrols advocates in every State.

4. It lays down standards of legal education in consultation with universities and State Bar Councils.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is important as it tests the statutory powers and institutional role of the Bar Council of India (BCI) under the Advocates Act, 1961. The topic has gained current relevance due to the NALSAR–BCI controversy over the extent of BCI’s regulatory powers.

Explanation

— The Bar Council of India (BCI) directed state bar councils to not enrol graduates of NALSAR University of Law’s 2026 batch over their protest against the convocation invitation to Chief Justice of India (CJI) Surya Kant. Within hours, however, the BCI withdrew the order and closed the proceedings.

— Advocates are enrolled by the State Bar Councils, not directly by the BCI. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Powers of BCI

— The BCI lays down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The BCI exercises general supervision and control over State Bar Councils. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The BCI lays down standards of legal education in consultation with universities and State Bar Councils. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 02 – August 08)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 26 – August 01)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 19 – July 25)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 12 – July 18)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 05 – July 11)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 28 – July 04)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 21 – June 27)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (June 14 – June 20)

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