UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 26 – May 02) : 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2026

2. The PAI 2.0 is for the financial year 2025-26.

3. Out of the total Panchayats, maximum of them fall under the ‘Front Runner’ category.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 is important under the local self-government (73rd Constitutional Amendment). It links grassroots governance with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), reflecting convergence of international and local policy frameworks. It is also relevant for prelims due to focus on government indices, reports, and categorisation frameworks in current affairs.

Explanation

— Gram Panchayats in Tripura, Kerala, and Odisha have performed better, while those in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Rajasthan lagged on the Centre’s Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0, which assessed 2,59,867 rural local bodies based on their performance and progress on nine themes covering sustainable development goals (SDGs). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The PAI 2.0 was prepared by the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj after assessing panchayats based on their performance across 150 indicators covering nine SDGs –from poverty-free and enhanced livelihoods to women-friendly panchayats—during the 2023-24 financial year. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— According to the ministry officials, the Gram Panchayats have been ranked under five categories based on their score on a scale of 0-100: ‘Achiever’ (90-100), ‘Front Runner’ (75-90), ‘Performer’ (60-75), ‘Aspirant’ (40-60 ) and ‘Beginner’ (below 40).

Classification of Gram Panchayats

— The PAI 2.0 covers all Gram Panchayats in the country, except West Bengal.

— Of the 2,59,867 Gram Panchayats, 3,635 have been ranked as ‘Front Runner’, 1,18,824 as ‘Performer’, 1,23,719 as ‘Aspirant’, and 13,689 as ‘Beginner’. No panchayat could make it to the ‘Achiever’ category. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

Consider the following statements:

1. This state only became an official part of India after almost three decades of independence for the country.

2. The treaty of Titaliya in 1817 gave the British authorities several commercial and political advantages in this state.

3. The monarchy of the Namgyal dynasty was maintained for 333 years, from 1642 to until 1975 in the state.

The above-mentioned statements refer to which state?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Assam

(c) Sikkim

(d) Himachal Pradesh

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

It is important under Modern Indian History and Post-independence integration of princely states. The question links historical treaties with colonial expansion strategies. It can be an important pick for UPSC due to its link with historical integration and constitutional provisions on state formation.

Explanation

— Sikkim only became an official part of India after almost three decades of independence for the country. Annually commemorated on May 16, Sikkim Day marks the former kingdom’s integration with India in 1975.

— The kingdom of Sikkim was established in 1642, when, according to one account, three Tibetan lamas consecrated Phuntsong Namgyal as the first ruler or Chogyal of Sikkim. The monarchy of the Namgyal dynasty was maintained for the next 333 years, until 1975.

— Sandwiched between India and China, and often party to conflicts over land with Bhutan and Nepal, the British colonisation of India first led to a semi-formal relationship between the two states. The British saw Sikkim as a buffer state against China and Nepal.

— A formal protectorate was established over Sikkim through the Treaty of Tumlong in 1861, meaning the British had control over it, but it was not officially under their rule, and the Chogyals could continue holding onto power. Other official treaties followed: The treaty of Titaliya in 1817 gave the British authorities several commercial and political advantages in Sikkim. The Calcutta Convention of 1890 demarcated the border between Sikkim and Tibet, and was signed by Viceroy Lord Lansdowne and Qing China’s Imperial Associate Resident in Tibet. The Lhasa Convention of 1904 affirmed the Calcutta Convention.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

Consider the following statements about ‘Look-Out Circular’:

1. It is issued either by the Supreme Court or High Courts.

2. It is a communication circulated to the immigration authorities at airports and other exit points.

3. It acts as an arrest warrant

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question helps in understanding procedures at international borders, immigration control, and surveillance tools used by the state. It is frequently in news due to economic offenders and investigations, making it a high-probability current affairs topic for prelims.

Explanation

— A Look-Out Circular is a communication circulated to the immigration authorities at airports and other exit points, asking them to monitor, detain or prevent the departure of a person. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— It is not an arrest warrant and does not originate from the court. It is merely an administrative alert which is triggered by a request from an authorised agency. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

— The concept of LOC does not emerge from any standalone statute. Their operation is mostly governed by the executive instructions issued by the MHA. Relevant office memos issued by the MHA date back to 1979 and the 2000s. A 1979 communication described LOCs as alerts issued by various authorities, including the police, CBI, customs, and intelligence agencies, to watch the arrival and departure of individuals. It also stated that unless otherwise stated, such circulars would be invalid after a year.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the remittances, consider the following statements:

1. These are the source of foreign exchange for India as it helps offset some part of the country’s trade deficit.

2. The remittance inflows from the Gulf countries of UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Qatar, Oman and Bahrain had increased in 2023-24 from 2016-17.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is important under the Indian Economy, particularly Balance of Payments (BoP) and components like current account receipts. It is relevant for prelims due to trends in migration patterns and shifting sources of remittance inflows.

Explanation

— According to RBI data, India received $132 billion of remittances in 2024-25, with the figure standing at $108 billion in the first three quarters of 2025-26. Data for the final quarter — whose last month coincided with the start of the war — will be released by the end of June.

— According to findings from the RBI’s latest survey on remittances, inflows from the Gulf countries of UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Qatar, Oman and Bahrain had declined to 38% of the overall figure in 2023-24 from 47% in 2016-17. Meanwhile, money being sent to India has risen from advanced countries such as the US and the UK. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

The Fourth Geneva Convention mandates that:

(a) a country cannot transfer its civilian population into occupied territory.

(b) an occupying power may deport protected civilians from occupied territory for administrative convenience.

(c) civilians in occupied territories are not entitled to legal protection during armed conflict.

(d) occupying powers are free to alter the demographic composition of occupied territory.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The topic is important under International Relations and International Law. It is also relevant due to global conflicts and debates on war crimes and occupation policies.

Explanation

— Settler violence in the Occupied Palestinian Territories is on the rise. Since the beginning of 2026, settlers have killed at least 10 Palestinians and injured 385 others across the West Bank. Various human rights organisations across the world have raised concerns against the violence by the settler groups, accusing the Israeli security forces of abetting them. Settlers are Israel’s Jewish citizens who live in territories captured by Israel in 1967, primarily the West Bank (referred to by its biblical name, Judea and Samaria) and East Jerusalem.

— The Fourth Geneva Convention mandates that a country cannot transfer its civilian population into occupied territory. This position is also reaffirmed by the International Court of Justice (ICJ).

— Israel, however, claims that the Geneva Convention is about forcible deportation of the local population (like Nazi practices in WWII), and does not cover voluntary civilian movement.

— Under Israeli rule, settlers in the West Bank enjoy full citizenship rights. They can freely move anywhere, vote in the national elections, and have full access to the welfare schemes of the government. The State also takes care of their security by posting adequate forces around the settlements. On the other hand, the Arabs living in the same area are subject to a complex system of military decrees and martial law, besides lacking civil liberties and fair political representation.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

Consider the following statements:

1. OPEC manages oil prices by regulating production limits and setting strict quotas for each of its member countries.

2. It is designed to protect the market from oversupply during times of reduced global demand.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is important under Indian Economy and International Organisations. Aspirants must understand the crude oil price dynamics, which directly impact India’s inflation, fiscal balance, and energy security. It is relevant for prelims due to frequent coverage of production cuts, supply shocks, and geopolitical tensions affecting oil markets.

Explanation

— The United Arab Emirates announced its exit from the Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and the broader OPEC+ alliance on Tuesday (April 28), set to come into effect on May 1.

— The UAE formally joined the alliance in 1967, six years before the OPEC oil embargo was imposed on nations like the United States and the Netherlands due to their support of Israel in the Arab-Israeli war. With oil prices nearly quadrupling in this period as a result, OPEC steadily gained geopolitical leverage while extending membership to countries like Algeria and Nigeria.

About OPEC

— Founded in September 1960 at the Baghdad conference in Iraq, OPEC was originally established by five founding members, namely Iran, Kuwait, Iraq, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.

OPEC’s central role in global markets

— Undertaking a role resembling that of a central bank for the global oil market, OPEC’s primary tool is its power over the supply management of oil. OPEC attempts to manage oil prices by regulating production limits and setting strict quotas for each of its member countries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— This means that a member state may or may not be able to hit its peak oil production capacity, depending on OPEC-assigned limits. Designed to protect the market from oversupply during times of reduced global demand, these quotas ensure members collectively pump less oil to prevent a crash in per-barrel pricing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

What is the correct order of these Indian states in terms of the length of border shared (high to low) with Bangladesh?

1. Assam

2. Meghalaya

3. West Bengal

4. Tripura

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 3—1—2—4

(b) 1—3—2—4

(c) 3—4—2—1

(d) 1—2—3—4

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is important under Indian Geography, especially international boundaries and border-sharing states. It is also relevant for internal security and border management. The question strengthens spatial awareness of Northeast India, a high-focus region in prelims.

Explanation

— The issue of illegal immigration into India from Bangladesh has been a politically sensitive one and has sparked demands to fence the porous India-Bangladesh border (IBB).

— In December 2023, a five-judge Supreme Court Constitution Bench was hearing a challenge to the constitutional validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, which granted citizenship to immigrants who entered Assam before January 1, 1966. The top court had sought to know from the Centre the status of the border fencing and the steps it intended to take to complete it, and the estimated timelines for completion.

— Bangladesh shares border with the following Indian States:

West Bengal – approximately 2200 km

Tripura – approximately 850 km

Meghalaya – approximately 440 km

Assam – approximately 260 km

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following is/are reasons for India being a major importer of vegetable oils?

1. Low farm productivity in oilseeds

2. Higher profitability of oilseed exports compared to domestic consumption

3. High labour costs making domestic oilseed cultivation unviable

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is important under the Indian Economy, especially agriculture, oilseeds sector, and import dependence. It can be relevant for prelims due to focus on structural challenges in agriculture such as productivity and cropping patterns.

Explanation

— India’s demand for vegetable oils has far exceeded its domestic supply, driven by a growing population and rising consumption. A key structural reason for this gap is low farm productivity in oilseeds, which results in lower yields per hectare compared with global benchmarks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Another important factor is the policy incentive structure. The farming community has largely responded to Minimum Support Price (MSP) signals, which have traditionally favoured cereals such as wheat and rice. This has led to relatively lower acreage and investment in oilseeds.

— In terms of alternatives to palm oil, the next best options are sunflower oil, soybean oil, and mustard oil. However, imports of sunflower oil (from Russia and Ukraine) and soybean oil (from Argentina and Brazil) are typically more expensive than palm oil and involve longer supply chains. Mustard oil, while domestically produced, has limited scalability and regional consumption preferences.

— India is a net importer, not exporting significantly. In India, the primary reason is yield not the labour cost. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

The term ‘Ecocide’ refers to the:

(a) natural extinction of species due to evolutionary processes over geological time.

(b) conservation of ecosystems through community-led environmental management practices.

(c) economic valuation of ecosystem services for sustainable development planning.

(d) worst harms caused to the environment by human actions, usually on a major industrial scale or affecting a huge area.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is important under Environment and Ecology, especially emerging concepts related to environmental degradation and accountability. It will help in understanding human-induced impacts like biodiversity loss, pollution, and ecosystem collapse.

Explanation

— ‘Ecocide’, a term that has been used for decades to describe widespread environmental harm caused by human actions, has come into prominence as global conflicts disrupt entire ecologies. Environmental groups have called for the inclusion of the term as one of the international crimes under the Rome Statute that governs the International Criminal Court (ICC).

— The term was coined in 1970 by Prof Arthur W Galston — a Yale plant biologist whose early research contributed to the development of Agent Orange — to describe massive, long-term environmental devastation, particularly caused by the herbicide’s use in the Vietnam War. Two years later, at the UN Conference on the Human Environment in Stockholm, Swedish Prime Minister Olof Palme used the term to refer to the Vietnam War.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

The Kanwar Wildlife Sanctuary was recently in the news due to petition against the two hydel projects. The sanctuary is located in:

(a) Sikkim

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Uttarakhand

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question is relevant for mapping-based questions, particularly locations of lesser-known sanctuaries in Himalayan states. The topic links to issues of development vs conservation, such as hydel projects in ecologically sensitive zones.

Explanation

— Two small hydropower projects coming up in Kasol in Parvati Valley in Himachal Pradesh fall under the Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) of Kanwar Wildlife Sanctuary but do not need environment clearance, the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEFCC) has informed the National Green Tribunal.

— As per the submission by the MoEFCC, projects above 25MW capacity need to procure green clearance from the standing committee of National Board of Wild Life (SC-NBWL), while the projects in Kasol are of 5 MW each.

— The NGT is hearing petition filed by residents of two villages — Thunja and Grahan — against the two hydel projects. The petitioners have alleged that the two projects on Grahan Nullah poses a threat to the existence of their villages and the flora, and fauna of Parvati Valley.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for April 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

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