UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 19 – April 25) : 10 key questions with detailed answers for Prelims 2026

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because the Mahanadi river dispute has been in news due to tribunal proceedings and water-sharing concerns. It tests mapping skills and river-basin awareness. Such questions also connect to federalism and Centre–State relations.

Explanation

— Almost six months after Odisha and Chhattisgarh agreed on an “amicable solution” to resolve the long-pending Mahanadi water dispute, the tribunal formed to adjudicate the matter has given the states a last opportunity to devise a settlement formula.

— In its April 20 order, the Mahanadi Water Dispute Tribunal (MWDT) warned that it will proceed on merits if the two states are unable to finalise the settlement formula and ‘place on record’ any consensus on the issues by May 2.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

The ‘B’nei Menashe’ are a:

(a) Jewish community among the Mizo and Kuki tribal communities of Manipur and Mizoram

(b) Buddhist sect found predominantly in Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh

(c) Christian tribal group inhabiting the Nicobar Islands

(d) Indigenous animist community of central India following nature worship

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because the B’nei Menashe community is often in news due to issues of migration to Israel, citizenship, and identity recognition. UPSC can ask about lesser-known tribes/communities.

Explanation

— Over 240 members of the B’nei Menashe community of Manipur and Mizoram, who believe they are descendants of one of the “ten lost tribes of Israel”, were flown into Tel Aviv, in the first such batch of relocation of members of the community by the Israeli government.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the contamination of groundwater, consider the following statements:

1. Consumption of the arsenic through drinking water can cause skin lesions and abnormal pigmentation.

2. Fluoride exposure impacts bone and teeth health adversely.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because groundwater contamination (arsenic and fluoride) is a major public health issue in India. It links to government initiatives like Jal Jeevan Mission, which focus on safe drinking water. The question tests awareness of real-world issues backed by scientific concepts.

Explanation

— The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has instructed the state governments to mitigate the arsenic and fluoride contamination of groundwater, asking the Centre to monitor the measures being adopted across the country.

— Hearing a suo motu matter, the principal bench of the NGT was examining the groundwater contamination issue based on news reports and it has impleaded all 28 states, directing them to submit data on arsenic and fluoride contamination across districts, villages and blocks. The green court has also directed the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) to regularly monitor the mitigation measures adopted across states and ensure remedial action.

— Consumption of the arsenic through drinking water is a major health concern, causing arsenicosis, with symptoms such as skin lesions and abnormal pigmentation, and even cancer in case of chronic exposure. Fluoride exposure, meanwhile, impacts bone and teeth health adversely. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Konark Sun Temple, consider the following statements:

1. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

2. It was built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.

3. The Jagamohan (assembly hall) was completely destroyed in the 18th century.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because Konark Sun Temple is often featured in culture-related current affairs. It tests knowledge of temple architecture and historical dynasties. Such questions align with UPSC’s focus on Art and Culture static with current integration.

Explanation

— The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has begun drilling a passage into the Jagamohan (assembly hall) of the 13th-century Konark Sun Temple to remove sand packed inside by the British over a century ago.

— Officials said ASI’s technical team has started drilling a 6×5-foot passage through which the structure—now a UNESCO World Heritage Site—was filled with sand and sealed. Once the passage is drilled through the western wall, sand removal will begin manually. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Jagamohan was filled with sand by the British between 1901 and 1903 to “prevent structural collapse and provide stability” to the monument, designed as a chariot for the Sun God. Since then, the hall has remained inaccessible, with visitors viewing it only from outside. The main temple tower, which once housed the deity, has collapsed while the Jagamohan (assembly hall) is still standing. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. It was inserted in the Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1985.

2. It lays down the time limit for the presiding officer of a House to rule on the disqualification of a member.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is important because the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) is frequently in news. It tests core constitutional concepts. Aspirants must read about the constitutional facts related to the tenth schedule.

Explanation

— Seven Rajya Sabha MPs of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) — Raghav Chadha, Sandeep Pathak, Ashok Mittal, Harbhajan Singh, Rajinder Gupta, Swati Maliwal and Vikramjit Sahney — switched to the BJP.

— The 10th Schedule — inserted in the Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1985 and strengthened by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003 — which says: “A member of a House shall not be disqualified… where his original political party merges with another political party and he claims that he and any other members of his original political party have become members of such other political party or, as the case may be, of a new political party formed by such merger”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The 10th Schedule, however, does not lay down any time limit for the presiding officer of a House to rule on the disqualification of a member for either switching over or defying the party whip. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Judicial review of the presiding officer’s ruling also takes place only after he has given his ruling — something that can make a presiding officer sit on a petition so that a member liable to be disqualified still retains the membership of the House. This is despite the Supreme Court having observed that presiding officers should decide a petition within a reasonable time.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

In terms of economy, the ‘goldilocks zone’ refers to an:

a) economy experiencing hyperinflation along with rapid GDP growth.

(b) economy facing deflation and stagnant or negative growth.

(c) economy with high unemployment despite low inflation.

(d) economy being exactly where policymakers would like it to be — sustained growth, low inflation, and low unemployment.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because the term “Goldilocks economy” is frequently used in economic surveys, RBI reports, and global market analysis. It helps test understanding of macroeconomic stability indicators—growth, inflation, and employment. UPSC can ask conceptual terms used in editorials and policy discussions.

Explanation

— When the Union Budget was presented in February, a popular notion was that the Indian economy was witnessing a “rare goldilocks period”, as RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra put it. A cultural reference, goldilocks refers to an economy being exactly where policymakers would like it to be — sustained growth, low inflation, and low unemployment.

— First, India revised (with a new base year of 2022-23) how it calculates its gross domestic product (GDP) — the measure used to assess the size of any economy — and found that the old series (with 2011-12 as base year) was overestimating GDP.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Recently, the Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary has been inducted as a Ramsar Site. It is located in:

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Kerala

(c) Chhattisgarh

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because the Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary was recently added to the Ramsar List, making it a high-probability current affairs topic. UPSC frequently asks about new Ramsar sites and wetland conservation under the Ramsar Convention.

Explanation

— Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Bhupendra Yadav expressed his delight at the recognition of Uttar Pradesh’s Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary as another Ramsar site.

— The addition brings India relatively closer to a landmark achievement, as the total number of its wetlands recognized internationally now stands at 99. Uttar Pradesh has also emerged as the leading state in India for Ramsar-designated wetlands, now boasting 12 such sites.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following are the components in a firecracker?

1. Oxidisers

2. Potassium nitrate

3. Barium nitrate

4. Sodium chloride

5. Nitrogen gas

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The question tests basic understanding of chemical composition and environmental science. UPSC can frame questions linking everyday phenomena with scientific concepts.

Explanation

— Over the course of three days this week, southern India saw two separate firecracker accidents that killed dozens of people.

How does a firework function?

— There are four components in a firecracker: An oxidiser, fuel, ‘stars’ and a binder.

— Burning requires oxygen. The oxidisers in fireworks are chemicals that release oxygen to allow the explosion to take place. The most commonly used oxidisers are nitrates, chlorates and perchlorates.

— Burning also requires fuel. The core explosive is generally black powder, a mixture comprising 10% sulfur, 15% charcoal, and 75% potassium nitrate.

— The oxidiser breaks down the chemical bonds of the fuel, releasing energy and heat — in other words, causing the explosion.

— The ‘stars’ are solid chemical lumps that are responsible for creating the bright colours and light we usually associate with a firework. Aluminium compounds produce brilliant whites, barium nitrate produces greens and the addition of copper results in blue light.

— Binders are used to hold the mixture of the firecracker together in a paste. Binders don’t actually begin to work until the firework has been lit.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Payments banks in India, consider the following statements:

1. They can accept deposits only up to Rs ten lakh per customer.

2. They are allowed to offer loans or credit cards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because Payments Banks are part of India’s financial inclusion architecture. UPSC often tests differences between types of banks (Payments Banks vs Small Finance Banks). It also checks clarity on what these institutions can and cannot do.

Explanation

— More than two years after barring Paytm Payments Bank from accepting deposits or top-ups, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) scrapped its banking licence with immediate effect.

— Payments banks in India are tightly restricted — they can accept deposits only up to Rs two lakh per customer and are not allowed to offer loans or credit cards. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— Paytm Payments Bank has been under regulatory scrutiny since 2018 owing to multiple compliance concerns. The central bank identified violations related to know-your-customer (KYC) norms — rules designed to verify customer identities and prevent financial fraud.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

With reference to the India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS), consider the following pairs:

India-Africa Forum Summit	Year	Location
1st Summit	2008	New Delhi
2nd Summit	2013	Addis Ababa
3rd Summit	2015	Mumbai

How many of the pairs given above are correctly marked?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

This question is relevant because the India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) is a key platform for India’s engagement with Africa. With increasing focus on the Global South and South–South cooperation, such summits gain current relevance. UPSC can ask about international groupings, summits, and their locations/years.

Explanation

— External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar unveiled the logo, theme and website for the Fourth India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS-IV) alongside the Ambassadors of some African nations. The summit is scheduled for May 28 to 31 in New Delhi, more than a decade after the last edition was held in India.

— The India-Africa Forum Summit covers areas ranging from trade to people-to-people relations. An important player in these discussions is the African Union, the body representing the 55 member countries of the African continent.

— The first summit was held in 2008 in New Delhi, which saw the adoption of the Delhi Declaration and the India-Africa Framework for Cooperation. The declaration spoke of “redefining and re-invigorating the decades-old partnership and historical and civilizational links between the African continent and India.” Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

— The second summit was held in 2011 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, which is also the seat of the African Union Commission. The resultant declaration was more detailed in its scope, and noted “substantial” flows of Foreign Direct Investment and concessional loans from India to Africa in the preceding years. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

— Building on these developments, a much more expansive third summit was held in 2015 in New Delhi. While the previous Indian summit included only some regional representatives from Africa, this edition included leaders from all African nations. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

— The fourth summit was scheduled for 2020 but was postponed owing to the Covid-19 pandemic.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for April 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com🚨

Previous Weekly Quiz

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UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (April 05 to April 11, 2026)

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UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 15 to February 21, 2026

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